MCQs FCPS – II

Q.1.     Commonest cause of esophageal rupture is

a.       Iatrogenic Instrumentation

b.      Berret Oesophegus 

c.       Mallory wein syndrome  

d.      Caustic

e.       Borrhere syndrome

Q.2.     Anaerobic bacteria which produces & lectones & causes pelvic abdominal infection is:

1. Acine bacter
2. Bacteroids
3. E – coli
4. Kletesrelle
5. Staphylococci

Q.3.     Tumour is related to:

1. Age
2. Sex
3. Duration of symptoms
4. Poor response to treatment
5. Genetic abnormalities

Q.4.     Appropriate management of olecrenon bursitis:

1. Surgical excision with epiphyseal line
2. Cortisone Injection
3. Conservative
4. Aspiration of burse
5. Inesim & drainage

Q.5.     18 years old boy while playing football fell on ground. Testis become swellon & tender with redness on scrotme. Diagnosis is:

      

Torsion of testis

Undeserved testis

Inguinal hernia

Vericoceole

Hydroceole

Q.6.     A man receives gunshot round in Rt. mid arm. Muscles entreous nerve is paralyzed & Rt. Redial pulse is week. Management line is:

1. Artery repair followed by nerve
2. Treatment delayed for 6 weaks
3. Surgical depridement & excision of mind
4. Nerve repair
5. Angioplasty , nerve repair , myocutonus flep for oppenon pollies

Q.7.     18 years old boy after RTA presented with absent leg pulse and inability to walk. Diagnosis is:

a.       Femoral fracture with artery insbment 

b.      Femoral fracture

c.       Soft tissue injury

d.      Femoral artery rupture

e.       Sciatic nerve damage

Q.8.     A child of 8 days saline is pouring out from mouth oesophageal atresie diagnosed, Incorrect statement about disease is:

Right sternotomy is performed

Lower segment of oesophagus connects with trochee

Cyanosis & choling on feeding is prisent   

Troches oesophageal fistule is present

Troches connects with oesophagus at upper end

Q.9.     If a child is diagnosed as hypertropic pyloric stenosis. Incorrect statement is:

a.       Barium meal is Investigation of choice

b.      Ultrasound is Investigation of choice

c.       Most commonly seen 4 weeks after birth

d.      Occurs commonly in reles

e.       Appropriate surgical Rx recovery is 100%

Q.10.   33 years women with malignant parotid tumour:

a.         Total peratoidectomy (superfeel & deep) is indicated

b.        Sqnoms cell ce = parotid exhibits only ausdertely enaligment behavior

c.         Acinor ce = is highly aggressive malignant tumour of parotid

d.        Regional mode describe for occult relastess not indicated for malignancy            

e.         Facial area preservative should be attempted while surgical mergis of resection are free of tumour

Q.11.   APR is performed in man aged 45 years. 2 units of blood transfused. Hemolytic reaction is marbed by:

a.       Urtricorial rashes

b.       Muscle spasm

c.       Sbine rashes

d.      Fever

e.       Blooding from L/V lines, drains, catheters

Q.12.   Acute necrotizing fascists. Incorrect statement is:

a.       Is caused by clostridium perfruiges

b.      Faciotomy is performed

c.       It spreads in facial pelvis    

d.      Diabetic are more prove to it

e.       Untreated it will lead to gangrene & MSOF

Q.13.   A woman has red tumour mass in anal canal. Fresh blood on defection observed. What is management?

1. Esubion of mass
2. Hemorrhoidectomy
3. Ligature of Hemorrhoid   
4. Stapler Hemorrhoidectomy
5. Colostomy

Q.14.   A man of 45 years present with pain on defection. Rx of patient

1. Lateral sphicterotomy
2. Fressirectomy
3. Conservative treatment
4. Arelgesic area
5. Bed rest

Q.15    A woman of 45 years multiple simeses in breast with yellowish discharge. Diagnosis is:

a.       Breast disease

b.      Acute bacterial restits

c.       Ce: Breast

d.      Duct papillae

e.       Cystoserca phylloids

Q.16.   65 years old man went in wedding party where he eat med. In night he developed haenetemass with BP 80/60 more Hg & pulse 140/min. Diagnosis is:

1. GORD
2. Oesophageal verices
3. Gastritis
4. Peptic ulcer
5. Achbsia cardiac

Q.17.   Most dangerous complication after pocking of liver ingenious is:

a.       Extraheptic ingenious

b.      Biliary leakage

c.       Pancreatic injury

d.      Biliary structure

e.       Compression of IVC & low feeling of Rt atrium

Q.18.   15 years old girl after RTA, spleen is ruptured & teased. What is the management?

a.       Splanosrleply

b.      Splarectomy

c.       Conservative management

d.      Portial segmental resection

e.       Immediate laperatomy

Q.19.   Interoperative U/S is used in hepatic cellular carcinoma at the time of operation for detection of:

1. Extra hepatic tumour
2. Tumour of parenchange of liver
3. No other satellite foci are present
4. Cirrhosis of liver    
5. Locate lesion in relation to hepatic views, metastasis in liver 

 

Q.20.   In cholengio carcinoma filling defect is seen secondary to:

1. Sclerosing cholagitis 
2. Choledocholthisis
3. Hepato cellular carcinoma
4. Parasitic Infestelor with clonorcts siness
5. Cystic disease if biliary irect

Q.21.   In a patient aged 23 years, I/V eamule is put on amble limb is swellon & tender. Blood culture shows green +ve cocci. Management is:

1. I/V antibiotic
2. Strapping the foot
3. Elevating the foot
4. Surgical Debridement
5. Rest

Q.22.   In RTA child gets head injury. What is most appropriate diagnostic investigation?

a.       CT scan of skull

b.      X-Ray of skull

c.       MRI

d.      Nuclear scintigraphy

e.       Cerebral angiography

Q.23.   In 30 years old man swelling infront of neck ngnes with deglutition, not fixed to sbn. Investigation used:

1. U/S guided FNAC
2. FNAC
3. Thyroid scan
4. U/S of thyroid
5. CT scan

Q.24.   Kulchitic infection are characterized by:

1. Lymphodenopethy
2. Arthrolgic
3. Hepetoregety
4. Splenoegly
5. Fever

Q.25.   Appropriate treatment of DCIS is:

a.       Mestectomy

b.      Modified radical mastectomy

c.       Conservative

d.      Bilateral mastectomy

e.       Patey mastectomy

Q.26.   Stored blood is deficient in coagulation factor in blood bank

a.       I  &  II

b.      XI  &  XII

c.       IX  &  VIII

d.      IV  &  III

e.       V  &  VIII

Q.27.   Structures not removed patey mastectomy are:

1. Nipple & areole
2. Skin
3. Breast tissue
4. Lymph nodes
5. Pastorates major

Q.28.   Indication of positive end expiratory pressure (PEEP) ventilation. Include all of the following excepts:  

1. Low cardiac output
2. Profound Hypoxemia
3. Atelectasis
4. Massive chest well injuries
5. Significant physiologic shunting

Q.29.   Abdominal infection discharging wounds has overripe cheese cucumbert small is caused by:

a.       Pyocyareous

b.      Proteins vulgarism

c.       Bacteriods

d.      Pseudomonas

e.        E – Coli

Q.30.   Most common indication for edmision for trerme head injured patient to hospital to:

a.       Vomiting

b.      Hypotension

c.       Alcohol Intoxication

d.      No availability of relations

e.       Severe head ach & vertigo

Q.31.   Hyponatremie may present as:

a.       Hippocratic faces

b.      Hypotension

c.       Hypertension

d.      Fluffiness of face

e.       Putting edema

Q.32.   Inhalational anesthetic which cause distention of abdomens in patient of Intestinal obstruction at Ileum:

a.       Nitrous oxide

b.      Halothane

c.       Ether

d.      Trifluro ethane

e.       Dischloro ethane

Q.33.   19 years old female (who missed menstrual periods 2 weeks ago) present with pain in RIF. Most probable cause is: 

1. Ruptured Lutean cyst
2. Pelvic Inflammatory disease
3. Betopic pregnancy
4. Acute appendicitis
5. Acute selphagits

Q.34.   A soldier fells from 20 feet height came in casualty with unconscious, bleeding from nose & ear, 2 hours back he withdraws on pressure, eye moment on deep pain & unintelligent voice. Grade of GCS is:

a.       8

b.      15

c.       5

d.      12

e.       None detectable

Q.35.   In sense head injury predictor of raised ICP is:

1. Bredgcardie
2. Level of consciousness
3. Hypotension
4. Vomiting
5. Headache

Q.36.   In treatment of hemolytic reactor of blood following are correct expect:

1. HCO₃
2. Steroids
3. R/V fluids
4. Foley’s catheter
5. Manitol

Q.37.   Most common of Intestinal abstruction in neonate are all expect:

a.       Duodenal atrase

b.      Vomiting

c.       Ileum atrese

d.      Imperforate aims

e.       Hirrchspring disease

Q.38.   K⁺, H⁺, NH³ secreted by which part of kidney:

a.       Loop of henle

b.      Glomeration

c.       Collecting ducts

d.      Pelvis of kidney

e.       Proximd convoluted tubule

Q.39.   Most common cause of hypercalcium is:

1. Primary solitary ademore of parethyroid  
2. Primary multiple ademore of parathyroid
3. Hypertensiveof parathyroid   
4. Carcinoma of parathyroid
5. Phaochromocytome

Q.40.   Statically most important of prognosis of carcinoma if breast is:

a.         Histological states of breast

b.        Lymph node involvement with retestesis 

c.         Differentiation of breast

d.        Lymph node involvement

e.         Metastasis done

Q.41.   Colloid treatment in shock:

a.       Defiantly superior to crystalloid in shock

b.      Cause less kidney problems

c.       Inferior to crystalloid in shock

d.      Cause hypersthenes

e.       Cause respiratory depression

Q.42.   Pseudomonas infection is treated by:

a.       Third generation cephalosporin

b.      Imipenium   

c.       Aminoglyosides

d.      Percllvies

e.       Ampullae’s

 

         

Q.43.   A woman with 1.5 cm lump in breast. Mammogram showed no abnormal finding. What test is essential to proforma next:

1. Excisional Biopsy
2. FNAC
3. Trucut Biopsy
4. CT scan
5. MRI

Q.44.   Patient with Idiopathic anhydrous (sweating in ascille & palm) treatment is:

a.       Chemical cervical sympethetectomy

b.      Lumber sympethectectomy

c.       Division of lower tender of bronchial plexime 

d.      T2 cervicodorsel sympethectectomy

e.       Dorsocervical sympethectectomy

Q.45.   Patient with gunshot round in abdomen. Management is:

a.       Exploratory Laparotomy

b.      Diagnosis peritoneal levege

c.       Conservative

d.      Antibiotic treatment

e.       Peritoneal drainage

Q.46.   A woman aged 30 years with 64% burn comes after 30 min to hospital. According to parblend formula dosage of colloid crystalloid.

      

1. 800 ml / hour Ragir lactate & 200 ml / hour colloid in 7½ hours
2. 200 ml / hour Ragir lactate & 800 ml / hour colloid in 7½ hours
3. 200 ml / hour Ragir lactate & 200 ml / hour colloid in 7½ hours
4. 200 ml / hour Ragir lactate & 400 ml / hour colloid in 7½ hours
5. 1250 ml / hour Ragir lactate & 800 ml / hour colloid in 7½ hours

Q.47.   In 25 years old male after RTA, Trance to Rt. testis occurs Rt. Scrotam in well developed but empty.   

1. Dislocated testis
2. Hydrocole
3. Undescended testis
4. Testicular malignancy
5. Congenital absence of Rt. testis

Q.48.   A female of 45 years used oral contraceptive pills since 4 years. Now she C/O internetent bleeding per vague is caused by: 

1. Endometrial hyperplasia
2. Bioelectrical carcinoma
3. Cervical polyp
4. Ce: cervix
5. Senile vaginal atrophic    

Q.49.   Stone in chest is caused by:

Fracture of rib & stern

Fracture of first rib

Fracture of first 2 second rib

Fracture of third rib

Fracture of fourth rib

Q.50.   Sarcoidosis is diagnosed by:

X-Ray chest

Estimation of ACE

Pulmonary function test

CT scan of skull

Pulmonary Bronchoscopy

 Q.51.  Morphine cause following actions expect:

Reduces tone of and sphueter

Absorbs electrolytes form GIT

Nausea & vomiting

Addiction

Respiratory depression

Q.52.   Metabolic effect most unlikely after presented vomiting form stomach.

a.       Hyperbolae

b.      Hyporetrene

c.       Alkaline vice

d.      Hypochloranic acidosis

e.       Hypokaleme    

Q.53.   A diabetic cricketer came in emergency department after ball injury to Rt. Tempera mandibular joint in state of semiconscious. What is most important initial investigation?

a.       CT scan of skull & brain

b.      Blood Sugar

c.       X-Ray skull

d.      X-Ray chest

e.       X-Ray spine

Q.54.   Common cause of spontaneous rapture of intra cerebral arteries is due to:

a.       Hypertensive arteriopathy

b.      Barry aneurysm

c.       AV malformation

d.      Coagulation disorders

e.       Anti coagulant therapy

Q.55.   Rectal polyp most likely to become malignant:

1. Villous polyp
2. Tubo-villous polyp
3. Jumtrile polyp
4. Hammertoes polyp
5. Adanomators polyp

Q.56.   Most common cause of hemoptysis in person with no tuberculosis of lung present in due to:

a.       Ce: Bronchus

b.      Peptic ulcer

c.       Mallory mass syndrome

d.      Duodenal ulcer

e.       Pancreatic tumor ; Bronchitis

Q.57.   Initial rise after perforated duodenal ulcer is”

a.       Distention of abdomen

b.      Serum amylase

c.       Chest pain

d.      Pancreatic juice

e.       Bile

Q.58.   AV fistula is treated by:

a.       Repair of vessels

b.      Repair of vessels & bypass graft

c.       Ligature of vein & artery on both ends

d.      Ligature of vein above & below AV fistula

e.       Prosthetic grafts

Q.59.   Common sites of non union of long bones:

a.       Tibia

b.      Fibula

c.       Femur

d.      Heneries 

e.       Radius

Q.60.   Early prostate cancer is treated by:

a.       Radical prostatectomy

b.      x Blockers

c.       β Blockers

d.      Transvasical

e.       TURP

Q.61.   In extensive burns graft is after:

a.     3 weeks

b.    4 weeks

c.     2 weeks

d.    1 week

e.     3 days

Q.62.   Most common cause of splaractomy is:

1. Hereditary spharocytosis 
2. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpose
3. Tropical splanomegely
4. Sickle cell anemia
5. Acquired hemolytic anemia

Q.63.   FNAC finding of breast suggestive of malignancy are:

1. Bpithelid dysphasia
2. Apocrine metaplesie
3. Duct papillae
4. Adanosis of duct  
5. Fibroadenosis

Q.64.   Keloid is commonly:

1. Originates from clean wound
2. Predisposed to malignancy
3. Is a form of fibrome
4. Treated by antibiotic
5. Rare in negroes

Q.65.   Actinomycosis , incorrect statement is:

1. Predisposes to malignancy
2. Multiple small sinuses are found
3. Sulphar yellow granules are diagnosed
4. Treated by penicillin dabriedment     
5. Caused by actinomycosis

Q.66.   Least mephrotoric drug is

1. Neomycin
2. Polymicin
3. Gentamycin
4. Bacitrocin
5. Climderycine

Q.67.   In colorectal surgery for reduced infection we use:

a.       Mechanical bowel wash with systemic antibiotic

b.      Systemic antibiotic

c.       Pesenteral antibiotic

d.      Mechanical bowel wash with antibiotic not absorbed  

e.       Mechanical bowel wash

Q.68.   Fracture of hip presented as:

1. Externally rotated & abducted
2. Externally rotated & adducted
3. Internally rotated & adducted
4. Internally rotated & abducted
5. Flexion

Q.69.   Large lesion of portwise strew berry henergrive is treated:

a.       Laser destruction

b.      Excision & graft cover

c.       Excision with out graft cover

d.      Cryotheraphy

e.       Conservative

Q.70.   Best operation of peptic ulcer with least recurrence chance on:

a.       Vegotomy & drainage procedure

b.      Highly selective vegotomy

c.       Vegotomy alone

d.      Drainage procedure alone

e.       Gastrectomy

Q.71.   Gyneuonestic:

a.       Associated with leprosy

b.      Occurs in down syndrome

c.       Enlargement of female breast

d.      Congenital one breast

e.       Is due to ovarian tumour

Q.72.   Most common thyroid malignancy is:

1. Papillary carcinoma
2. Follicular carcinoma
3. Anaplastic carcinoma
4. Metastatic carcinoma
5. Medullary carcinoma

Q.73.   In infant of 1 day is in persistent cyanosis after going under GA for repair of congenital diaphragmatic hernia is due to:

1. Fellot of tetralogy
2. Congenital cardiac disease
3. Left to right shunt
4. Coarctaton of aorta
5. Preposition of great vessels

Q.74.   A Taxi driver burst in RTA. His mouth, nose and neck are swellon. What is most important initial step to do:

1. Maintain an injury
2. Measure burn area
3. I/V fluids
4. Catheter placement
5. Wound clearance

Q.75.   Aspiration of food in trachea bronchial tree management is:

a.       Endotracheal intubations & suction

b.      Cricothyroidotomy

c.       N/G tube

d.      H₂ blockers

e.       Broad spectrum antibiotic

Q.76.   4 years old child developed cyanosis which may be due to:

a.       Fellot of tetralogy

b.      Coarctaton of aorta

c.       Patent directs asterism

d.      Preusposition of great vessels

e.       Ventricular saptel defect

Q.77.   12 years old girl, in RTA, on CT san spleen ruptured & tensed, tens at mesentery of small intestine, 1000 cc blood is removed form peritoneal arty. Appropriate management is:

 

1. Splanorrbeply
2. Splenectomy
3. Iled resection
4. Broad spectrum antibiotics
5. Partial splenectomy    

 

Q.78.   18 years old boy sustained grade 1 fracture of tibia with puckered skin over it. Best management is

1. Manipulation , POP & window fracture
2. Back slab
3. ORIF
4. Manipulation only
5. Wound debridenet & manipulation

Q.79.   A person after RTA has tender swellon distended neck veins & muffled heart sounds. It may be due to:

1. Cardiac tenponada
2. Flail chest
3. Pericardits
4. Right ventricular falme 
5. Bpicardits

Q.80.   Modified Radial mastectomy performed local rearrenes in breast are diagnosed by:

a.       CT Scan / MRI

b.      FNAC

c.       Mammography

d.      Ultrasound of breast

e.       Clinical examination

Q.81.   A patient  aged 45 years has Ce: Rectum 4 cm from anal verge. Most appropriate treatment is:

a.       Abdomen operated resection

b.      Hartman procedure

c.       Anterior resection

d.      Stapler gun resection & anestomies

e.       Low anterime resection

Q.82.   Inter abdominal hypertension is associated with:

1. Lapratomy
2. Blood transfusion
3. Bmbolzation 
4. Raised intra cranial pressure
5. Encephelopethy

Q.83.   70 years old person with H/O myocardial infection has suddenly developed ischemia of lower beg. Incorrect statement is:

1. Ulceration on medical melleolies
2. Unable to none limb
3. Cold limb
4. Dorsdis padius not felt
5. Paleness present

Q.84.   Mobile fluctment swelling found in breast of 25 years female

a.       Fibro adenoma

b.      Breast disease

c.       Ducted Ce: in situ

d.      Ce: Breast

e.       Medially carcinoma of breast

Q.85.   Lobular cystic swelling found on outer centhus of Rt. Eyelid:

1. Dermoid cyst
2. Teratome
3. Lipome
4. Neurofibrome
5. Lymphoma

Q.86.   CT scan of skull raveled intracranial tumour causing homonymous hemoanopie. The site of lesion is:

1. Salle turicia
2. Right cerebral hemisphere
3. Left cerebral hemisphere
4. Cerebelloponture angle
5. Crus cerebra

Q.87.   Pulsatile swelling is parepherygeal space is:

a.       Chemodectome

b.      Carotid body tumour

c.       Aberrant carotid artery

d.      Thyroid

e.       Parathyroid

Q.88.   Swelling found in front of ear painless since 2 years. Since 5 days swelling is painful, tender & fixed to underlying skins:

1. Plaomorphic ademore of parotid
2. Parotid abscess
3. Warthin tumour 
4. Acinar Ce: parotid
5. Squenous Ce: parotid

Q.89.   Splarectomy performed for patient with symptoms of thrombocytopic18 months later. She returned with swelling of mucous membrane of mouth, petachial hemorrhage. The cause is:

a.       Accessory spleen

b.      Inadequately performed splenacting  

c.       Vitamin C defacing

d.      Vitamin K defacing

e.       Vitamin A defacing

Q.90.   TURP done for patient with symptoms of prostate enlargement. After 1 year patient come with dribbling of urine & incomplete erector of bladder. Appropriate investigation to perform is:

1. Ultrasound of abdomen
2. Prostate specific malignant
3. CT Scan of abdomen
4. Intravenous urography
5. Biopsy of prostate

Q.91.   Gamre Rays are:

a.       Photon

b.      Electron

c.       Proton

d.      Neutron

e.       Charged helium nuclear

Q.92.   Normal portal venous pressure is:

a.       0 – 10 mm Hg

b.      20 – 40 mm Hg

c.       40 -160 mm Hg

d.      160 – 220 mm Hg

e.       220 – 440 m Hg

Q.93.   Glasgow come scale composed of:

1. Eye response, motor response, verbal response
2. Bye response, papillary reflex, verbal response
3. Verbal response, gag reflex, papillary reflex
4. Motor response, verbal response, papillary reflex
5. Motor response, occulomotor reflex, papillary reflex

Q.94.   Woman in 3^rd trimester of pregnancy with varicose vein appropriate treatment

1. Elastic stoking bandage
2. Saphenofemoral ligation
3. Subfascial ligation of vien
4. Saphenooplited ligation    
5. Superficial venous ligation

Q.95.   Best bone graft from donor is :

a.       Tibia

b.      Fibula

c.       Hunerius

d.      Fever

e.       Redoes

Q.96. On laryngoscopey vocal cords is cadenaric position are:

1. Paralyzed & abducted
2. Paralyzed & bowed
3. Partially paralyzed
4. Paralyzed
5. Fixed

   

Q.97.   Suitable donar of kidney transplant are all expect:

1. Person with serine creative 1.5 mg
2. Person with gunshot
3. Person with brain death 
4. Person with stale wound
5. Person with RTA

Q.98.   CMO receives patient with lacerated wound on thigh after RTA investigation schedule would be:

a.       ATS

b.      Foxoid & Imuoglobulin

c.       No need if boaster dose 5 years ago

d.      Imuoglobulin ATG

e.       Active imuoglobulin

Q.99.   In popliteal AV aneurysm simple excision causes.

a.                   Is related with DVT

b.                  Stenosis later on

c.                   No chance of amputation

d.                  Always result in below knee amputation

e.                   50% chance of amputation

Q.100. A female with breast cover has 3.3 Nottingham Prognostic index. 15 years survival rate is:

1. 80%
2. 60%
3. 40%
4. 20%
5. 10%

Q.101. Most common malignancy tumour b/w age 15-25 years of age is:

a.       Chordrosercome

b.      Osteogenic sarcoma

c.       Seminone

d.      Vilus tumour

e.       Neuroblastone

Q.102. Localized & moble Ce: Breat in female, appropriate treatment is:

a.       Wide local excision

b.      Local excision of mass

c.       Radical modified mastectomy

d.      Chemotherapy 

e.       Hernol therapy

Q.103. Tumour in pelvis o kidney found. Appropriate treatment is:

1. Nephro ureteractomy
2. Radical rephaectomy
3. Chemo-Radiation 
4. Radiotherapy

e.       Laparoscopic rephactomy

Q.104. Tumour of kidney is best approached through:

a.       Trans abdominal approach

b.      Lower paranediem incisors

c.       Extra peritoneal approach

d.      Lumber extra peritoneal approach

e.       Middle incisors

Q.105. Appendicular mass is treated by:

1. Oschur sharren therapy
2. Antibiotic
3. Laparotomy
4. Laparoscopic appendectomy
5. Conservation