Surgery
MCQs
1. In mesh repair for
inguinal hernia, which type of suture can be used for suturing mesh to muscle?
a)
silk
b)
propylene
c)
stainless steel
d)
polylactic acid
e)
catgut
2. Necrotising fasciitis is
associated with
a)
swelling of the
calf
b)
redness
c)
high fever
d)
high ESR
e)
high CRP
3. In a patient with
hypovolaemic shock, which cannular size would you ideally choose for infusion?
a)
19G
b)
21G
c)
14G
d)
26G
e)
30G
4. Adequate minimum urine
output in a 70kg man during resuscitation is
a)
35 ml/hr
b)
20 ml/hr
c)
50 ml/hr
d)
45 ml /hr
e)
60 ml/hr
5. Copper IUCD prevent
pregnancy by the following way:
a)
spermicidal
action
b)
preventing
ovulation
c)
prevent
implantation of embryo
d)
all of the above
e)
non of the above
6. Which is important in the
antenatal history?
a)
menstrual history
b)
medical history
c)
family history
d)
previous
contraceptive methods
e)
all of the above
7. Which of the statement
about a perforated duodenal ulcer is false:
a)
?
b)
patch repair
c)
?
d)
20% show free air
under diaphragm on CXR
8. Several studies have
followed up patients with asymptomatic gallstones. What percentage of patients
develop symptoms after 5 – 20 years?
a)
< 2%
b)
10 – 20 %
c)
30 – 40 %
d)
50 – 60 %
e)
60%
9. Salbutamol
a)
may cause
hypokalaemia
b)
not used with
steroid for PTL in DM
c)
improve outcome
when used alone by prolonging pregnancy
d)
negative chronotrophic
effect on heart
e)
more effective in
PROM
10. Which of the following
give complications in 1st H&L injection?
a)
trigger finger
b)
DeQuervain’s
tenovaginitis
c)
Achilles
tendinitis
d)
?
e)
Tennis elbow
11. Acute retention of urine,
which is FALSE:
a)
imperforate hymen
does not commonly present as ARU
b)
herpes simplex
genitalis often presents with voiding difficulties and urinary retention
c)
can be treated by
indwelling catheter for 48 hours
d)
retention is
often accompanied by overflow incontinence
e)
often occurs post
vaginal delivery, post-instrumental vaginal delivery, post surgical
instrumentation
12. Which of the following is
true for basal cell carcinoma?
a)
metastases to
lymph node is rare
b)
common at non-sun
exposed area
c)
UV light is not a
cause
d)
morpheous type is
easily treated
e)
treatment of
choice is radiotherapy
13. Inhalation burn injury 20
mins earlier, now carbonaceous sputum, respiratory rate 24 breaths per minute.
TRUE:
a)
if stridor and
cyanosis not present, then not severe
b)
X-rays, chest
signs should be positive
c)
ABG normal, then
watch/treat conservatively
d)
bronchoscopy is
of no value
e)
intubation and
oxygen indicated
14. Varus injury to the knee
results in
a)
medial meniscus
injury
b)
medial condyle
fracture
c)
tear of fibulo??
ligament
d)
?inability to use
extensor hallucis longus
15. Which is the least likely
to be present in ?acute cholecystitis
a)
nausea
b)
right
hypocondrial tenderness
c)
right
hypochondrial guarding
d)
elevated
conjugated bilirubin
e)
jaundice
16. Following are features of
Conn
a)
hypertension
b)
low serum potassium
c)
low plasma rennin
activity
d)
raised serum
sodium
e)
muscle weakness
17. Workman fell on a bar,
hit perineum. Scrotal haematoma and per-uretral bleeding. Which is TRUE?
a)
catheterise
b)
surgery to repair
urethra
c)
suprapubic
catheter if patient cannot pass urine
18. Which of the following is
NOT a risk factor for bladder cancer
a)
smoking
b)
cyclophosphamide
c)
schisostomiasis
d)
pelvic
irradiation
e)
adriamycin
19. Treatment of
dysfunctional uterine bleeding except
a)
prostaglandin E
b)
bromocriptine
c)
danazol
d)
tranexamic acid
e)
OCP
20. 40 year old male with
ulcerative colitis now with exacerbation of GI symptoms. Assess severity with
a)
erythema nodosum
b)
anaemia
c)
dose of
salazopyrine
d)
ankylosing
spondylitis
e)
dysplasia on
colonoscopy
21. Cause of thirst and
oliguria in ileostomy
a)
hypokalaemia
b)
metabolic
alkalosis
c)
renal calculi
d)
high output from
ileostomy
22. Man went for anterior
resection, post-op histo shows Duke C. Advise:
a)
adjuvant chemo-RT
b)
neoadjuvant RT
c)
liver resection
23. Termination of
mid-trimester pregnancy can be by applying prostaglandin via
a)
intra-amniotic
b)
extra-amniotic
c)
vaginally
d)
none of the above
e)
all of the above
24. A 28 year old lady
complains of painful defecation associated with fresh per-rectal bleed.
Possible diagnosis to consider:
a)
hiradenitis
suppurativa
b)
dermoid cyst
c)
pilonidal sinus
d)
anal fissure
e)
pruritis ani
25. Which is FALSE for
colorectal cancer?
a)
father with
colorectal cancer predisposes one to higher risk than general population
b)
familial
adenomatous polypopsis coli is inherited as autosomal dominant
c)
cancer localized
to mucosa can be cured
d)
DNA mismatch
repair gene mutation predisposes you to 100% lifetime risk of colorectal cancer
26. ? Submandibular stones
associated with
a)
swelling
b)
radiolucent
stones
c)
Frey’s syndrome
d)
pain after eating
2 hours
e)
excision of the
whole gland
27. Not a cause of large
bowel intestinal obstruction
a)
Crohn’s
b)
volvulus
c)
radiotherapy
d)
adhsions
e)
recurrent
ischaemic colitis
28. Haemorrhoids
a)
are commonly
believed to be venous malformation
b)
require surgical
excision if small and symptomatic
c)
commonly present
with painful bleeding and perianal swelling
d)
may undergo
malignant metaplasia in those with chronic prolapse
e)
pruritis ani
29. What is true about
malrotation and volvulus?
a)
commonly presents
with bilious vomiting
b)
presents in late
childhood
c)
barium meal
excludes it
d)
may lead to acute
ischaemic colitis
e)
is not an
emergency and may be treated conservatively
30. Which statement with
regards to burns is TRUE?
a)
the commonest
cause of deaths is overwhelming infection
b)
in electrical
burns, extent of surface injury is a good reflection of underlying injury
c)
flame burns worse
than scalds
d)
?
e)
Partial thickness
burns are sensate
31. Maternal mortality rate
is calculated as the number of maternal deaths per:
a)
100
b)
1000
c)
10 000
d)
100 000
e)
1 000 000
32. Which is false for squamous
cell carcinoma
a) can be caused by repeated exposure to chronic skin
irritation
b) can arise from chronic conditions like Marjolin’s
ulcer
c) Bowen’s and Paget’s are known risk factors
d) seborrhoiec keratosis is a pre-malignant lesion
e) can present as cutaneous horn
33. Which of the following is
commonly used to screen for osteoporosis/osteopenia in a menopausal lady?
a)
MRI of hip
b)
lumbar X-ray
c)
DEXA
d)
mammogram
e)
CT scan
34. The osmolality of plasma
and interstitial fluid is determined by:
a)
bicarbonate
b)
potassium
c)
chloride
d)
protein
e)
sodium
35. In the 2nd
stage of labour
a)
immediate
delivery is indicated in early decelerations
b)
pushing is
encouraged once cervis is fully dilated
c)
urinary catheter
is routinely done to help foetal head engage
d)
persistent late decelerations
is suggestive of foetal hypoxia
e)
it is never
allowed to go beyond 1 hour
36. The following signs &
symptoms are consistent with acute unruptured appendicitis EXCEPT:
a)
patient writhing
in pain
b)
pain initially
paraumbilical, then moves to right iliac fossa
c)
Rovsing’s sign
positive
d)
Rectal
temperature 38.1°C
e)
?
37. A young lady presents
with 3cm thyroid nodule. FNAC shows papillary cells. The next appropriate
management is
a)
thyroxine
b)
radioactive
iodine
c)
?
d)
Excise nodule
e)
Hemithyroidectomy
38. Menopause is associated
with the following except:
a)
hot flushes
b)
urinary problems
c)
Colle’s fracture
d)
Increase risk of
acute myocardial infarct
e)
Dysmenorrhoea
39. Hyperprolactinaemia is
associated with the following EXCEPT:
a)
Hypothyroid
b)
Bitemporal
hemianopia
c)
Ovarian cyst
d)
Breast discharge
e)
Oligomenorrhoea
40. Man with 3cm adrenal mass
found on CT scan. Which of the following is NOT true:
a)
do CXR
b)
FNAC
c)
Do rennin level
d)
Surgery
e)
observe
41. Which of the following is
not associated with increased maternal mortality?
a)
antepartum
haemorrhage
b)
postpartum
haemorrhage
c)
infection
d)
ectopic pregnancy
e)
pre-existing
diabetes mellitus
42. 70 year old man fell in
bathroom and fractured left hip (displaced NOF #). Treatment:
a)
total hip
replacement
b)
hemiarthroplasty
c)
excisional
arthroplasty
d)
internal fixation
and screw
e)
dynamic hip screw
43. Which of the following is
found in diabetes insipidus?
a)
increase serum
urea
b)
decrease serum
urea
c)
increase serum
potassium
d)
decrease serum
potassium
e)
decrease
creatinine
44. Chronic pelvic pain
associated with the following EXCEPT:
a)
chronic pelvic
inflammatory disease
b)
previous
abdominal operation
c)
adenomyosis
d)
endometrioma
e)
retroverted
uterus
45. Most common cause of
sub-arachnoid haemorrhage is
a)
hypertension
b)
coagulopathy
c)
arteriovenous
malformation
d)
aneurysm
e)
tumour
46. SIADH is associated with
a)
hypernatraemia
b)
hyponatraemia
c)
hyperkalaemia
d)
hypokalaemia
e)
raised serum urea
47. Which of the following is
not a sign of upper motor neurone lesion?
a)
sustained clonus
b)
hyper reflexia
c)
Hoffman’s sign
d)
Upgoing plantar
e)
Flaccid paralysis
48. The following affect
perinatal mortality rate except
a)
low birth weight
b)
asphyxia
c)
vacuum aspiration
d)
congenital
abnormalities
e)
prematurity
49. Following a road traffic
accident, a motorcyclist presents with a cold pulseless foot. Injuries that may
be associated include:
a)
posterior knee
dislocation
b)
closed fracture
of the tibia and fibula
c)
penetrating
injury to the popliteal fossa
d)
a & b
e)
a, b & c
50. Contraindications to
breast conservation
a)
multicentric on
mammogram
b)
central
c)
> 60 year old
d)
diabetes mellitus
e)
Jehovah’s Witness
51. Perthe’s disease: which
of the following is TRUE?
a)
present > 10
years old poorer prognosis
b)
always bilateral
c)
has congenital
deformities
d)
age range up to
20 years old
e)
early surgery
improves prognosis
52. Wide local excision +
axillary clearance + radiotherapy compared with simple mastectomy + axillary
clearance:
a)
inprove survival,
increase local recurrence
b)
same survival and
recurrence
c)
inprove survival,
reduced local recurrence
d)
studies
inconclusive
53. Patient going for right
hemicolectomy. Consultant asks you to prescribe ampicillin-sulbactam. After
checking no drug allergy, you would administer:
a)
oral route 24hr
before surgery
b)
oral route 10 –
30 min before surgery
c)
IV route 6 hr
before skin incision
d)
IV 10 – 30 min
before skin incision
e)
IV 0 – 30 min
before surgery and continue for 3 days after
54. Which is not a cause of
pancreatitis?
a)
hypercalcaemia
b)
hypokalaemia
c)
hyperlipidaemia
d)
obstruction at
ampulla of Vater
e)
thiazide
55. 60 year old man, 70kg
with oesophageal carcinoma. Poor feeding for 2 wks because of dysphagia, lost
12kg in 4 wks. What would you do for him?
a)
do not need
nutritional correction
b)
IV parenteral
nutrition 1 day before operation
c)
IV parenteral
nutrition 1 wk before operation
d)
IV parenteral
nutrition after surgery
56. Monteggia
fracture-dislocation. Which is TRUE?
a)
fracture of
proximal ulnar + radial head
b)
ulnar nerve palsy
c)
weak finger
extension
d)
cross-union
e)
treat
conservatively with above-elbow cast
57. Patient with colorectal
Ca 5cm metastasis to liver. T2N1M1. Primary is treated. What to do with liver
mets?
a)
liver resection
b)
TACE
(transarterial chemo-embolisation)
c)
Radiotherapy
d)
Chemoradiotherapy
e)
Wait and see
58. In which of the following
tumours does radiotherapy (offered as a 1st line treatment) have the
same results as surgical resection?
a)
renal cell
carcinoma
b)
adenocarcinoma of
stomach
c)
malignant
melanoma
d)
squamous cell
carcinoma of oesophagus
e)
carcinoma of
rectum
59. Closed fracture of the
shaft of humerus may be associated with inability to:
a)
extend distal
interphalangeal joint of little finger
b)
oppose thumb
c)
flex wrist
d)
flex proximal
metacarpophalangeal joint of thumb
e)
extend the
interphalangeal joint of thumb
60. Normal menstrual cycle,
true EXCEPT:
a)
LMP taken as
final day of last menstrual period
b)
FSH, LH change
continuously throughout cycle
c)
mid-cycle pain
and bleeding is physiological
61. 11 year old male cyclist
had an accident, sustained laceration over left thigh extending over left
inguinal area into left iliac fossa. On further history taking he is estranged
from his parents and staying alone. Choose the most appropriate statement.
a)
patient is a
minor and his consent for any operation is not needed
b)
patient and 2
senior doctors can sign the consent form
c)
toilet &
suture is minor procedure so consent is not required
d)
if patient
refuses treatment, it is not necessary to trace the parents to inform them
e)
no consent is
needed if procedure performed in emergency room
62. You are a HO clerking a
patient for elective laparoscopic cholecystectomy for cholelithiasis. He
complained of dark urine of 1 day duration the day before. Had abdominal pain 3
weeks ago, after fatty food.
LFT shows:
- conjugated bilirubin 25
- unconjugated bilirubin 20
- ALP 180
- ALT 25
- AST 26
- PT 13.3 s
Your plan of management:
a)
continue with
cholecystectomy, becourse the stones will be taken out anyway
b)
ultrasound, if
dilated bile ducts refer for ERCP
c)
Hep B, Hep C
screen
d)
Recheck LFT in 2
weeks
e)
CT liver
63. True of slipped capital
femoral epiphysis EXCEPT:
a) common in children < 6 years old
b) associated with endocrine abnormalities
c) present with limp
d) associated with obesity
64. Most effective parameter
in the ultrasound diagnosis of IUGR is:
a)
biparietal
diameter
b)
head
circumference
c)
abdominal
circumference
d)
femur length to
biparietal diameter ratio
e)
umbilical artery
Doppler
65. Teenager with painful
flat foot. Which can cause it?
a)
juvenile chronic
arthritis
b)
tarsal coalition
c)
accessory
navicular bone
d)
all of the above
e)
none of the above
66. Periosteal bone formation
seen in
a)
chronic osteomyelitis
b)
osteogenic
sarcoma
c)
post-phlebitic
leg
d)
a & c
e)
all of the above
67. Indications for vaginal
examination in theatre
a)
diagnose placenta
praevia
b)
?
c)
Ultrasound
finding of placenta praevia
d)
Revealed PV
bleeding
e)
Concealed PV
bleeding
68. 34 year old lady, 3cm hard
mass in left breast, what is the investigation which is least helpful?
a)
FNAC of lump
b)
Ultrasound both
breast for DCIS
c)
Mammogram both
breast for DCIS
d)
LFT for mets
e)
CXR for mets
69. In variceal bleeding,
FALSE:
a)
IV somatostatin
early
b)
Correct PT of 22
with FFP
c)
Encephalopathy
may be treated by lactulose
d)
Sengstaken-Blackmore
tube once diagnosis made
e)
Band ligation in
1st endoscope
70. 45 year old motorcyclist,
has a road traffic accident. A&E findings revealed patient groaning,
speaking unintelligibly, chest wall abrasions. RR 20/min, BP 90/70 mmHg, pulse
125/min, small pulse volume. Cold and clammy. Reduced air entry and tympanic
percussion note on right chest. Distended neck veins. Next appropriate thing to
do?
a)
enquire RTA
circumstances
b)
2 large bore IV
lines
c)
Intubate
d)
Needle in 2nd
intercostals space
e)
Pericardiocentesis
71. Fat embolism is commonly
associated with
a)
?
b)
?
c)
mental alteration
and restlessness
72. Face presentation in
labour, most commonly associated with
a)
post term
b)
anencephaly
c)
Oligohydramnios
d)
Down’s syndrome
73. In a bleeding patient,
which is the most important parameter to assess successful fluid replacement?
a)
pulse rate
b)
pulse pressure
c)
urine output
d)
cutaneous
perfusion
e)
pallor
74. A young man at A&E
after road traffic accident. Unconscious, systolic BP 60mmHg by palpation. No
obvious open wounds or fractures. Most likely cause of shock:
a)
sub-dural
haemorrhage
b)
cervical
transection
c)
bleeding into
abdomen and chest cavity
d)
cardiac tamponade
e)
tension
pneumothorax
75. Regarding mammographies,
which is inappropriate:
a)
increase false
negative in younger females compared to older females
b)
mammograms have
not affected mortality outcome
c)
false negative
rate is about 10-15%
d)
women about 40
years should go for one
e)
women under 40
should go if they have positive family history
76. Enterocutaneous fistula.
Which is false
a)
skin irritation
is a major problem
b)
barium meal
should be done by 1st wk
c)
Can try oral
elemental feeding if fistula is at distal small intestine
d)
Fistulogram can
help in diagnosis
77. 25 year old smoker, 32
wks pregnant, noticed to have IUGR on ultrasound only, what is associated with
this feature?
a)
polyhydramnios
b)
gestational
diabetes mellitus
c)
decreased fetal
plasma viscosity
d)
drinking alcohol
of > 120mg daily
e)
? increased
proction of thromboxane A2 & prostacyclin
78. A 70 year old man
presents with painless cholestatic jaundice and vomiting. CT scan shows a bulky
tumour in the pancreas and tumour thrombosis in the superior mesenteric and
splenic veins. An appropriate treatment plan is
a)
pancreaticoduodenectomy
b)
fibrinolysis
treatment followed by Whipple’s operation
c)
gastrojejunostomy
and choledochojejunostomy
d)
total
pancreatectomy and splenectomy
e)
fraxiparin (LMW
heparin) and pain relief
79. Symptoms of endometriosis
include the following EXCEPT:
a)
dysmenorrhoea
b)
irregular
bleeding
c)
sudden lower
abdominal pain
d)
infertility
e)
abdominal mass
80. Regarding traumatic
diaphragmatic rupture, which statement is FALSE:
a)
laparotomy is
indicated
b)
mainly on right
side
c)
Ryle’s tube can
assist in making diagnosis
d)
respiratory
distress is common
e)
blunt is more
common than penetrating trauma
81. Incidence of post-term
pregnancies
a)
1%
b)
20%
c)
6%
d)
80%
e)
0.01%
82. In renal trauma the
diagnostic investigation that best demonstrates parenchymal laceration, urine
extravasation, extent of retroperitoneal haemorrhage is:
a)
intra-venous
urogram
b)
CT abdomen
c)
Nephrotomography
d)
Arteriogram
e)
MRI
83. Most appropriate
investigation for an obstructed upper urinary tract which is dilated
a)
IVU
b)
CT scan
c)
MRI
d)
Ultrasound
e)
Renogram
84. Which is not a proven benefit
of combined HRT?
a)
decrease risk of
osteoporosis
b)
decrease risk of
ovarian Ca
c)
decrease risk of
endometrial cancer
d)
decrease risk of
colon cancer
e)
reduction of
vasomotor symptoms
85. The best way to evaluate
the testicle and epididymis in the presence of a tense hydrocoele is:
a)
manual
compression
b)
transillumination
c)
Doppler flow
studies
d)
scrotal
ultrasound
e)
DTPA scan
86. 40 year old Chinese man,
2 days history of right knee swelling. ESR 90 mm/hr, CRP raised. Afebrile
a)
diagnostic
aspiration
b)
arthrotomy and washout
c)
intravenous
antibiotics
d)
NSAIDs
e)
None of the above
87. Anterior dislocation of
shoulder is associated with loss of sensation
a)
of medial arm
b)
of lateral
forearm
c)
of medial forearm
d)
of 1st
dorsal interossei of hand
e)
none of the above
88. Scoliosis
a)
kyphotic
deformity of the spine
b)
poor back posture
c)
lateral curvature
of spine
d)
exaggerated
lordosis
e)
congenital high
scapula
89. Management of 4mm
mid-ureteric stone include:
a)
?push stone up
& PCNL
b)
Conservative
c)
Retrograde
ureteroscopy & laser
d)
?Open surgery
e)
?ESWL alone
90. In the blood supply of
the long bone, which of the following is true?
a)
nutrient artery
supplies 2/3 of the inner cortex
b)
periosteal
arterioles supply 2/3 of outer cortex
c)
nutrient artery
supplies 1/3 of inner cortex
d)
the blood supply
is centripetal
e)
nutrient artery
supplies ½ of the inner cortex
91. The following is true of
GnRH agonist EXCEPT:
a)
symptoms of
endometriosis may worsen
b)
can be given in
intravenous pulses
c)
can be given as
depots
d)
?
e)
Increase bone
density
92. Which of the following is
true about epidural analgesia?
a)
cardiorespiratory
collapse is a recognized complication
b)
it cause
increased pelvic floor tone
c)
previous
Caesarean section is a contraindication
d)
current
pregnancy-induced hypertension is a contraindication
e)
post-dural
puncture headache occurs immediately
93. Most common symptom of
testicular tumour
a)
testicular pain
b)
scrotal swelling
c)
sensation of
heaviness in scrotum
d)
haematocoele
e)
bilateral
gynaecomastia
94. The following are risk
factors for senile osteoporosis, EXCEPT:
a)
chronic smoking
b)
regular aspirin
intake
c)
Asian women with
small build
d)
Chronic steroid
intake
e)
NSAIDs ingestion
95. In uterine rupture, all
are found EXCEPT:
a)
hypotension
b)
increased uterine
contractions
c)
haematuria
d)
per-vaginal
bleeding
e)
fetal distress
96. GMP-mediated relaxation
of penile corporeal smooth muscle is mediated by
a)
norepinephrine
b)
dopamine
c)
serotonin
d)
NO
e)
endothelin
97. Bladder cancer, true
EXCEPT:
a)
smoking is a risk
factor
b)
superficial
variant is most common
c)
transitional cell
carcinoma is commonest histology
d)
lifelong
follow-up following ablation for superficial transitional cell carcinoma
e)
immunotherapy is
not useful
98. Side-effect of use of
prostagladins for mid-trimester termination of pregnancy include all EXCEPT:
a)
shivering
b)
nausea &
vomiting
c)
pyrexia
d)
diarrhea
e)
post-partum
haemorrhage
99. With respect to
compartment syndrome, which of the following is FALSE:
a)
pale &
pulseless limb is an early sign
b)
it can occur in
open fractures
c)
indication for
urgent fasciotomy
d)
can occur in the
foot
e)
pain is always
present
100. Abruption placentae
a)
more common in
primigravida than multiparous women
b)
associated with ?
coulevaire uterus
c)
always lead to
per-vaginal bleeding
d)
does not result
in fetal death
e)
associated with
cardiac disease
101. Occipital posterior
presentation in labour
a)
occipital frontal
is presenting diameter
b)
rupture of
membrane occurs late in pregnancy
c)
50% rotate to
occipital anterior during labour
d)
Persistent
occipital posterior means vaginal delivery contraindicated
e)
Accounts for 50%
of vertex presentation in early labour
102. Commonest cause of
haematospermia
a)
non-specific
inflammation of prostate or seminal vesicles
b)
TB prostate
c)
Adenocarcinoma
prostate
d)
Transitional cell
carcinoma of prostate
e)
Epididymo-orchitis
103. The following
antibiotics are used for prophylaxis of UTI EXCEPT
a)
trimethoprim-sulphamethazole
b)
amoxicillin
c)
nitrofurantoin
d)
cephalexin
e)
fluroquinolones
104. Management of 3cm stone
in renal pelvis:
a)
PCNL
b)
ESWL
c)
conservative
management
d)
open pyelolitomy
e)
double J-stenting
105. Which of the following
is not used in HRT administration?
a)
tablets
b)
patch
c)
subdermal
implantation
d)
vaginal pessaries
e)
IUCD
106. Which is not a feature
of degenerative spine diease
a)
decreased joint
space
b)
sclerosis of
vertebral body
c)
grade 1
spondylolisthesis of L4/5 vertebrae
d)
decrease joint
space of facet joints
e)
syndesmophytic
lipping
107. Chronic complication of
radiotherapy for cancer of cervix. Which is FALSE:
a)
urinary
continence will not be compromised
b)
blood transfusion
may be indicated for haemorrhagic cystitis
c)
?it is caused by
endarteritis, fibrosis
d)
Includes pelvic
pain, tenesmus, diarrhea, rectal bleeding
e)
Occurs 6 – 36
months after cessation
108. 70 year old lady, fit,
presents with lower 1/3 ureter transitional cell carcinoma, no lymph node
involvement. Treatment:
a)
radiotherapy
b)
intravesical chemotherapy
c)
radical
nephrectomy
d)
radical
cystectomy
e)
nephro-uretectomy
109. 62 year old man presents
with recurrent lower urinary tract infection. Which of the following
investigations is most unlikely to be useful?
a)
uroflow
b)
urine culture
c)
intravenous
urogram
d)
micturating
cystourogram
e)
cystoscopy
110. Polycystic ovarian
syndrome may be treated by the following, EXCEPT:
a)
ovarian
cystectomy
b)
norethisterone
c)
clomiphene
d)
ovarian drilling
e)
metformin
111. After motorcycle
accident, 33 year old man with fixed internal rotation of upper arm. Diagnosis
to exclude is:
a)
fracture of
surgical neck of humerus
b)
anterior
dislocation of shoulder
c)
posterior
dislocation of shoulder
d)
rotator cuff tear
e)
none of the above
112. A 40 year old man
presented to the A&E department with ureteric colic. Which of the following
investigation is not relevant?
a)
abdominal
ultrasound
b)
non-contrast CT
scan
c)
intravenous
urogram
d)
urine dipstick
e)
urine culture
113. Which of the following
drugs should not be used in pregnancy?
a)
amoxicillin
b)
tetracycline
c)
erythromycin
d)
acyclovir
e)
zidovudine
114. Endometrioma is
associated with
a)
cervical cancer
b)
vulva cancer
c)
clear cell cancer
of ovary
d)
cancer of
fallopian tube
e)
germ cell tumour
of ovary
115. The single largest
factor determining long term survival in breast cancer is:
a)
tumour size
b)
tumour grade
c)
tumour subtype
d)
nodal positivity
e)
adjuvant
chemotherapy
116. What is not true about
nephroblastoma?
a)
also known as
Wilm’s tumour
b)
occurs in 10% of
children
c)
presents as an
abdominal mass
d)
more common in
children before 3 years of age
e)
composed purely
of epithelial elements
117. What is true of
phaeochromocytoma
a)
neuroendocrine
tumour of adrenal cortex
b)
associated with
MEN I
c)
malignant in 90%
of cases
d)
? scan
e)
Only β-blocker
required pre-op
118. True about
cephalo-pelvic disproportion:
a)
a high head at 36
wk is diagnostic
b)
prolong latent
phase is a good sign of CPD
c)
diagnosis usually
not made without trial of labour
d)
diagnosis made
accurately by X-ray pelvimetry
e)
fetal
abnormalities such as microcephaly is associated with increased risk of CPD
119. Procedure of choice to
define anatomic details of calyces, pelvis and ureter is:
a)
intravenous
urogram
b)
ultrasound
c)
CT scan
d)
nuclear renogram
e)
retrograde
pyelography
120. False statement about
placental localization & antepartum haemorrhage management:
a)
ultrasound at 22
wks is unreliable
b)
absence of
retro-placental haematoma effectively excludes abruption placentae
c)
posterior
placenta gives false negative report of placenta praevia
d)
transvaginal scan
can be done for suspected placenta praevia
e)
placenta accrete
can be diagnosed antenatally on ultrasound
121. Effectiveness of breast
cancer screening has been shown to be most useful in the following age group
a)
< 35
b)
40 – 49
c)
50 – 64
d)
> 70
e)
All age groups
122. The following is
associated with increased risk of breast cancer:
a)
fibroadenoma
b)
fibrocystic
disease
c)
atypical duct
hyperplasia
d)
ductal papilloma
e)
increase breast
size
123. 16 year old boy presents
with a gradually enlarging left knee. X-ray shows a lytic lesion in the
metaphysic of proximal tibia. Which of the following need to be excluded?
a)
chondrosarcoma
b)
osteogenic
sarcoma
c)
osteochondroma
d)
giant cell tumour
e)
chondroblastoma
124. Paget’s diease of the
breast
a)
present anywhere
on breast skin
b)
usually bilateral
c)
rare in-situ
carcinoma
d)
bad prognosis
e)
usually require
mastectomy with axillary clearance
125- Min. urine output in
70kg person per day:
a)
35ml
b)
25ml
c)
40ml
d)
60ml
126- Following can cause
gout, EXCEPT:
a)
deficiency of
homo?? oxidase
b)
loop diuretics
c)
chemotherapy
d)
myeloproliferative
disease
127- 70 year old man has a
chest drain inserted for pneumothorax. He is listed for surgery because of a
persistant large air leak. Nurses call you to the ward because during transfer,
he became acutely dyspnoeic and oxygen saturation is 70%. Your first course of
action is:
a)
check chest tube
since it may have become inadvertently clamped during transfer
b)
exclude anxiety
as a cause
c)
exclude reaction
to anaesthetic premedication
d)
check if pulse
oximetry machine is working
e)
none of the above
128- About inguinal hernia,
which is FALSE?
a)
deep ring is a
defect in fascia transversalis
b)
cannot get above
it
c)
cough impulse may
be absent in large hernia
d)
mesh repair is
contraindicated unless recurrence
e)
repair can be
done under local anaesthesia
129- Which don’t improve
claudication distance in peripheral vascular disease?
a)
bypass
b)
angioplasty
c)
exercise
d)
stop smoking
e)
aspirin
130- Which is not
contributory to Glasgow Coma Scale?
a)
obey commands
b)
localizes painful
stimuli
c)
open eyes to
calling
d)
incomprehensible
sounds
e)
5mm pupils
131- The following are
features of Conn
a)
hypertension
b)
hypernatraemia
c)
low plasma rennin
activity
d)
hypokalaemia
e)
muscular weakness
132. Treatment of Choice for gastric varices is
a) Sclerotherapy
b) Band Ligation
c) Transjugular Intrahepatic Portosystemic Shunt
d) Application of cyanoacrylate glue
e) Shunt Surgery
133. Best Investigation for diagnosing gastrojejunocolic fistula after
Billroth II surgery is
a) Barium
Meal
b) Barium
swallow
c) Barium
Enema
d)
Colonoscopy
134. False about gastric bypass surgery is
a) In gastric
bypass surgery there is progressive weight loss upto 3 yrs
b) Horizontal
gastroplasty surgery with the application of single
horizontal
stapler has a failure rate of 40-70%
c) Gastric bypass
surgery has a failure rate of about 15%
d) With three
superimposed applications of a stapling device, gastric bypass staple line
dehiscence occurs in less than 2%
135. Jejunoileal bypass surgery has now been abandoned.
Which of the following is true following jejunoileal bypass surgery ?
a) Kidney
stones occur with increased frequency due to increased absorption of pyruvate
from the colon after bypass surgery
b) The most
serious complication of jejunoileal bypass surgery is development of
cirrhosis due to protein calorie malnutrition
c) Bacterial
overgrowth in the bypassed segment can be treated with oral vancomycin
136. Which of the following statements is correct with regard to gastric
bypass surgery for obesity?
a) Rapid weight
loss following successful gastric bypass surgery for obesity is associated with
an increased risk of developing cholelithiasis
b) Marginal ulcer
develops in 25% of gastric bypass surgery patients
c) Vitamin B12
deficiency is a potential complication of gastric bypass due to gastric mucosal
atrophy
d) Anastamotic
leak after gastric bypass surgery is often heralded by bradycardia
137. Ideal treatment of alkaline refkux gastritis after after Billroth I
and Billroth II gastrectmy is
a) Conversion of
Billroth I to Billroth II
b)Roux en Y
gastrojejunostomy
c)Tatal gastrectomy
d)Conservative
management
138. Surgical Treatment of bleeding Type I gastric ulcer is
a) Wedge
resection of the gastric ulcer
b) Oversewing the
vessel at the ulcer base
c) Distal gastrectomy
d) Distal
gastrectomy along with truncal vagotomy
139. Helicobacter Pylori (H.Pylori) is a
known cause of peptic
ulcer disease.
It was
discovered in Australia
Which of the
following statements is not true regarding it
a) Its infectivity is highest in developed world.
b) Person to person transmission is common
c) It is seen in populations with low socio economic status
d)H. Pylori is a gram negative microaerophilic bacteria
140. Which of the following hormones are
not released in duodenum?
a) Gastrin
b) Motilin
c) Somatostatin
d) Pancreatic YY
141. Treatment for bleeding duodenal
diverticulum is
a) Diverticulectomy
b) Diverticulopexy
c) Diverticulization
d) Subtotal diverticulectomy
142.
Regarding local anaesthesia
a. Local
anaesthetics act on large before small nerve fibres
b. Their main
toxic effects are seen on the central nervous and cardiovascular systems
c. Adrenaline
reduces absorption and prolongs the local effects
d.
Preparations containing adrenaline are safe to use on digits and appendages
e. Lignocaine
has a longer duration of action than bupivicaine
143. With an
iron deficiency anaemia
a. Both serum
iron and total iron binding capacity are reduced
b. The blood
film shows a hyperchromic microcytic picture
c. The
reticulocyte count is low in relation to the degree of anaemia
d. Serum
ferritin levels are increased
e. The
platelet count may be increased
144. Regarding abdominal aortic aneurysms
a. They
commonly remain symptomless until they rupture
b. The risk
of rupture increases with aortic diameter
c. Elective
repair should have a 30-day mortality of less than 5%
d. Emergency
repair has a 30-day mortality of less than 10%
e. The
benefits of surgery for small (4.0-5.5 cm) is proven
145.
Regarding hepatitis B
a. It is due
to an RNA virus
b. It has an
incubation period of 2 to 6 days
c. It can be
transmitted via blood products
d. About 1%
of the UK
e. About 10%
of infected patients become chronic carriers
146.
Regarding vascular grafts
a. PTFE
grafts are less porous than Dacron
b. Vein
grafts have better long-term patency
c. Graft
failure less than a month after surgery is usually due to a surgical error
d. Graft
failure within the first year is often due to neo-intimal hyperplasia
e. Graft
failure beyond one year is due to progression of the underlying disease
147.
Regarding colorectal carcinomas
a. About 40%
present as surgical emergencies
b.
Right-sided tumours often present with a change in bowel habit
c. 75% of
tumours can be reached with a flexible sigmoidoscope
d. Over 20%
of patients present with more than one primary tumour
e. A Duke's B
tumour has nodal metastases
148.
Regarding colonic polyps
a.
Metaplastic polyps are pre-malignant
b.
Adenomatous polyps are pre-malignant
c. Villous
adenomas are more common than tubular adenomas
d. Genetic
mutations can result in epithelial metaplasia
e. Most
carcinomas arise in adenomatous polyps
149. In
patients with carotid artery disease
a. A bruit is
a reliable sign of the degree of stenosis
b. Atheroma
is most commonly seen in the external carotid artery
c. An embolic
event often results in an ipsilateral hemiplegia
d.
Prophylactic aspirin reduces the risk of a stroke
e. Surgery is
of proven benefit in those with asymptomatic stenoses
150.
Regarding acute limb ischaemia
a. Arterial
occlusion has less dramatic effects in those with underling occlusive disease
b. Occurs
more often in patients in sinus rhythm
c. Objective
sensory loss requires urgent treatment
d. Fixed skin
staining is an early sign
e.
Intra-arterial thrombolysis is invariably successful with no morbidity
151.
Regarding muscle relaxants
a.
Suxamethonium is a non-depolarising agent
b. Vecuronium
is a depolarising agent
c.
Suxamethonium induces histamine release and can produce a 'scoline rash'
d.
Suxamethonium has a duration of action of about 5 minutes in most people
e. Scoline
apnoea is due to pseudocholinesterase deficiency
152. Abdominal
aortic aneurysms should be repaired if their diameter is larger than ?
a. 3 cm
b. 4 cm
c. 5 cm
d. 6 cm
a. 3 cm
b. 4 cm
c. 5 cm
d. 6 cm
153: In the United States
a.
Streptococcus
b. Staphylococcus
c. Salmonella
d. Treponema
b. Staphylococcus
c. Salmonella
d. Treponema
154: The most common peripheral artery aneurysm is ?
a. Brachial
b. Radial
c. Popliteal
d. Tibial
b. Radial
c. Popliteal
d. Tibial
155: The compartment most commonly affected in a lower leg
compartment syndrome is the ?
a. Anterior
compartment
b. Lateral compartment
c. Deep posterior compartment
d. Superficial posterior compartment
b. Lateral compartment
c. Deep posterior compartment
d. Superficial posterior compartment
156: The preferred procedure for treatment of typical
occlusive disease of the aorta and both iliac arteries is ?
a.
Endovascular stenting
b. Extra-anatomic bypass
c. Aortoiliac endarterectomy
d. Aortobifemoral bypass
b. Extra-anatomic bypass
c. Aortoiliac endarterectomy
d. Aortobifemoral bypass
157: What is
the treatment of acute embolic mesenteric ischemia ?
a. Observation
b. Anticoagulation
c. Thrombolysis
d. Operative embolectomy
158 The
treatment of nonocclusive mesenteric ischemia is ?
a. Observation
b. Catheter infusion of papaverine
c. Stenting to prevent further spasm
d. Operative bypass of the superior mesenteric artery
a. Observation
b. Catheter infusion of papaverine
c. Stenting to prevent further spasm
d. Operative bypass of the superior mesenteric artery
159: The most
accurate diagnostic test with the lowest morbidity in the diagnosis of renal
artery stenosis is ?
a. Angiography
b. CT scan
c. Magnetic resonance angiography
d. Renal systemic renin index
a. Angiography
b. CT scan
c. Magnetic resonance angiography
d. Renal systemic renin index
160: The
bypass graft of choice in children with renovascular hypertension is ?
a. Saphenous vein
b. Hypogastric artery
c. Prosthetic
d. Dacron
a. Saphenous vein
b. Hypogastric artery
c. Prosthetic
d. Dacron
161: Which of
the following is the most prevalent inherited risk factor for peripheral
vascular disease ?
a. Elevated HDL
b. Elevated LDL
c. Elevated VLDL
d. Elevated Lipoprotein a (Lp(a))
a. Elevated HDL
b. Elevated LDL
c. Elevated VLDL
d. Elevated Lipoprotein a (Lp(a))
162: Which of
the following statements regarding carotid body tumors is true
a. Occur more commonly in patients who live at high altitudes
b. Require resection of the underlying carotid artery with reconstruction for cure
c. Are associated with catecholamine release
d. Are usually malignant
a. Occur more commonly in patients who live at high altitudes
b. Require resection of the underlying carotid artery with reconstruction for cure
c. Are associated with catecholamine release
d. Are usually malignant
163: Rest
pain seen with occlusive peripheral vascular disease in the lower extremity
most commonly occurs in ?
a. The buttock
b. The quadriceps
c. The calf muscles
d. The Metatarsophalangeal joint (MTP)
a. The buttock
b. The quadriceps
c. The calf muscles
d. The Metatarsophalangeal joint (MTP)
164: A patient with a creatinine of 1.8 who is scheduled for angiography should
a. Not proceed with angiography
b. Be given oral acetylcysteine the day before and day of study
c. Be given lasix and a fluid bolus after the study
d. Have a dialysis catheter inserted at the time of the study
165: Which of
the following can be used in the treatment of hyperhomocysteinemia ?
a. Statin drugs
b. Aspirin
c. Niacin
d. Folic acid
a. Statin drugs
b. Aspirin
c. Niacin
d. Folic acid
166: The best
initial treatment for a groin pseudoaneurysm after angiography is ?
a. Surgical repair
b. Ultrasound-guided compression
c. Ultrasound-guided injection of thrombin
d. Observation
a. Surgical repair
b. Ultrasound-guided compression
c. Ultrasound-guided injection of thrombin
d. Observation
167: Which of
the following statements concerning cilostazol is true ?
a. It is more effective than pentoxifylline in the treatment of claudication
b. It works by inhibiting platelets and lowering LDL cholesterol
c. It works with in 2 weeks of starting the drug
d. It should not be used in patients with acute coronary syndromes
a. It is more effective than pentoxifylline in the treatment of claudication
b. It works by inhibiting platelets and lowering LDL cholesterol
c. It works with in 2 weeks of starting the drug
d. It should not be used in patients with acute coronary syndromes
168: The most common nonatherosclerotic disease of the internal carotid artery is ?
a. Thrombosis from protein C deficiency
b. Trauma
c. Takayasu arteritis
d. Fibromuscular dysplasia (FMD)
169: What is the earliest detectable lesion of atherosclerosis ?
a. Fatty streak
b. Fibrous plaques
c. Subendothelial monocytes
d. Platelet deposition
170: Carotid artery dissection is best treated by ?
a. Surgical resection and reconstruction with graft
b. Surgical resection and reconstruction with vein
c. Endoluminal stenting
d. Anticoagulation
171: A patient who develops dizziness, drop attacks and diplopia with exercise most likely has ?
a. Carotid stenosis
b. Subclavian steal syndrome
c. Coronary subclavian steal syndrome
d. Coronary artery disease
172: A patient who is taking metformin has an increased risk of which of these complications after angiography ?
a. Renal failure
b. Coagulopathy
c. Lactic acidosis
d. Hyperkalemia
173: Which of
the following is a risk factor specific for peripheral vascular disease ?
a. Family history
b. Hyperhomocysteinemia
c. Elevated HDL
d. Elevated LDL
a. Family history
b. Hyperhomocysteinemia
c. Elevated HDL
d. Elevated LDL
174:
Cholesterol lowering drugs (statin therapy) should be recommended in patients
with peripheral vascular disease who have ?
a. HDL less than 40 mg/dl
b. Triglycerides greater than 150 mg/dL
c. LDL cholesterol (LDL-C) greater than 130 mg/dL
d. Cholesterol greater than 185 mg/dL
a. HDL less than 40 mg/dl
b. Triglycerides greater than 150 mg/dL
c. LDL cholesterol (LDL-C) greater than 130 mg/dL
d. Cholesterol greater than 185 mg/dL
175: The osmolality of most contrast agents used for angiography is ?
a. 100-300 mOsm
b. 300-600 mOsm
c. 600-900 mOsm
d. 900-1200 mOsm
176: All patients with peripheral vascular disease should have medical treatment aimed to achieve which of the following goal ?
a. Statin therapy to lower CRP to less than 1.0
b. Treatment of blood pressure to attain 130/85 mm Hg
c. Management of diabetes to obtain glycohemoglobin level less than 12%
d. Niacin to achieve normal homocysteine levels
177: An Ankle-brachial index of 0.7 ?
a. is normal
b. indicates an incrased risk of CVS events
c. is indicative of moderate ischemia with rest pain
d. is indicative of severe ischemia with a risk for gangrene
178: The primary event in the occlusion of a coronary artery is ?
a. Arterial narrowing at a bifurcation site
b. Development of an atrial arrythmia
c. Episodes of hypotension
d. Episodes of plaque disruption
179: The most
common presenting symptom of acute arterial occlusion is ?
a. Pain
b. Pallor
c. Paresthesia
d. Pulselessness
a. Pain
b. Pallor
c. Paresthesia
d. Pulselessness
180:
Platelets are derived from ?
a. Eosinophils
b. Lymphocytes
c. Megakaryocytes
d. Monocytes
a. Eosinophils
b. Lymphocytes
c. Megakaryocytes
d. Monocytes
181: Chronic occlusion of the popliteal artery may produce ?
a. Brawny discoloration of the skin over the ankle
b. Dilated collateral vessels in calf and foot
c. Pain in the calf that is relieved by dependency
d. Ulceration over the medial malleolus
182: The most
common type of aneurysm is ?
a. Degenerative
b. Dissecting
c. Poststenotic
d. Traumatic
a. Degenerative
b. Dissecting
c. Poststenotic
d. Traumatic
183. Each of
the following is characteristic of causalgia of an extremity except
a. Anhydrosis
b. Burning pain
c. Coolness
d. Skin hypersensitivity
a. Anhydrosis
b. Burning pain
c. Coolness
d. Skin hypersensitivity
184: What is the first change encountered in acute mesenteric ischemia ?
a. Severe periumbilical pain
b. Elevation of creatine phosphokinase levels
c. Hyperkalemia
d. Metabolic acidosis
185: A 55 year old woman presents 6 days after experiencing an acute arterial occlusion in her left leg. After she undergoes an arterial reconstruction, pulses return to her foot, but 6 hours postoperatively, her urine becomes reddish brown and is found by dipstick to be positive for hemoglobin. Which of the following treatments would be absolutely contraindicated for this patient ?
a. Administration of mannitol
b. Administration of glucose and insulin
c. Administration of sodium bicarbonate
d. Administration of ammonium chloride
186. Which of the following statements concerning patients who have an asymptomatic bruit located at the carotid bifurcation is true ?
a. Approximately 50% of these bruits originate in the external carotid artery
b. The loudest bruits are heard when the stenosis is tightest
c. If these patients develop symptoms, transient ischemis attacks usually precede frank strokes
d. Almost 50% of these patients will develop neurologic symptoms within 5 years
187: Which of the following treatments is
contraindicated in the management of frostbite of an extremity?
a. Rapid warming in warm water
b. Antibiotics and tetanus antiserum
c. Elevation of the extremity
d. Early amputation of demarcated areas
a. Rapid warming in warm water
b. Antibiotics and tetanus antiserum
c. Elevation of the extremity
d. Early amputation of demarcated areas
188: A major difference between congenital and acquired arteriovenous fistulas is ?
a. The location affected
b. The hemodynamic stresses involved
c. The character of the bruits
d. The rates of surgical cure
189: All of the following statements concerning popliteal artery aneurysms are true except ?
a. Approximately 50% are associated with aneurysms at other sites
b. Rupture into the popliteal space is a frequent complication
c. Associated thrombosis carries a high risk of amputation
d. Associated distal embolization may result in tissue loss
190 Squamous carcinoma :
a. Can occur in transitional cell
b. Pallisading of cell is its Feature.
c. Charctiscally arise in a cylindroma
d. manifests in a keratocanthoma.
e. Display acanthosis
191.
A port wine stain is a:
a. Premalignant lesion of skin
b. Type of malanoma
c. Type of brusing of skin
d. Type of hemangiomas.
e. Tattoo.
192.
Premalignant conditions of skin are:
a. Bowen’s disease
b. Leucoplakia
c. Solar keratosis
d. Acanthosis nigricans
e. cylindroma
193.
Basal cell carcinoma is:
a. Most commonly occur at
outer canthus of the eye.
b. Is radioresistant
c. Cystic, pigmented.
d. Pyogenic granuloma
e. Readily Metastasise to the regional lymph
nodes
194.
Malignant malanoma:
a. Only arises in preexisting
pigmented naevus
b. Acral lentigious type,
occurs mainly on dorsum of hand and
feet.
c. Amelanotic type does not
matastasise.
d. Excision biopsy with surrounding
2cm of
skin for stage 1 is treatment of choice.
e. Common before puberty
195.
Partial thickness burn:
a. Is sensitive to pain.
b. Requires a split skin
graft
c. Heals within 14 days
without scarring.
d. Eschar formation.
e. No blister formation.
196.
Regarding Cleft :
a. CL And CP have incidence
of 15% with F>M.
b. CL and CP is common on RT
side.
c. Increase in oriental
groups (1:500)
d. Cleft palate is failure of
frontonasal process
e. Maternal epilepsy is risk
factor.
197.
Regarding clefting:
a. Immmediate problems are feeding, hearing and
cosmatic disfigurment.
b. Antenatal diagnosis Only
possible for cleft lip by US after 18wk of gestation
c. Breastfeeding is likely to be successful.
d. Nursing in supine position.
e. CP repair is performed B/W 3- 6month of age.
198.
Factor for ideal scar are:
a. Obesity has –ve effect.
b. Vermilion site develop bad scar.
c. Clean incised edges with no tissue loss have
a good scar.
d. Old age people have good scar.
e. Incision perpendicular to the langer’s line
give good scar.
199.
Regarding keliod:
a. overgrowth of dense fibrous
tissue within the wound limit.
b. Commonly occur B/W10-30 yrs
c. Not familial.
d. Inc: risk in pregnancy and puberty.
e. Face is rarely involved.
200.
Regarding Scar:
a. Hypertrophic scar and keliod are same thing.
b. Compression dressing have no role.
c. There is no universal treatment for abnormal
scar.
d. vit:E, allantion have a role in manag: of
scar.
e. Many societies done the scarification as sign
of beauty or decoration.
201.
Sinus and fistula are the :
a. Sinus is a pathological communicating tract,
between two epithelial surfaces,lined with granulation tissue.
b. Epithelialization cause persistance of sinus
and fistula.
c. steriods, cytotoxic drugs cause early
healing.
d. Probing is 1st choice to diagnose .
e. Sinugram is helpful.
202.
Management of sinus and fistula is:
a. Never recure after Fistulotomy.
b. Fibrin glue is new technique.
c. Conservative treatment have no role.
d. Removal of the causative factor is essential.
e. Biopsy in all casses.
203.
Regarding Reconstruction:
a. Graft Is a piece of tissue that is moved
with its blood supply.
b. Tissue transferred from donor site to
recipient site, which must survive, process known as TAKE.
c. New blood vessel grow from recipient site
of graft, links up with dermal capillaries to re-establish a blood supply, a process known as TAKE.
d. In flape recons: donor site directly close and Single use donor site.
e. Tissue consist of skin and some underlying
tissue such as fat and cartilage is composite graft.
204.
Regarding Burns :
a. Electrical injury have no effect on
cardiopulmonary system.
b. 2nd degree burns involve
epidermis.
c. Jackson
d. Rule of nine is for assessing the size of
burns.
e. Rule of nine is for assessing the depth of
burns.
205.
Lipoma can :
a. undergo saponification.
b. Undergo carcinomatous
change.
c. Occur In dercm’s disease.
d. Arise from intestinal wall
e. Be Plexiform lesion.
206.
Regarding Naevus:
a. Is melanin producing
benign condition of malanocytes, derived from neural crest cell.
b. Blue navi is compound type
of navus.
c Intrademal type projecting into epidermis.
d. In Lentigo type
malonocyted present within basal layer of epidermis.
e. Pigmented navi occur
commonly in childhood and aldolescence.
207.
Regarding cancer:
a. Rodent ulcer is a feature of squamous
carcinoma.
b. BCC can be treated by serial horizental
excision.
c. Marjolin’s ulcer develops into BCC.
d. SCC of ear and lip matastasise earlier.
e. SCC origenate from pluripontential cell.
208.
Regarding Management burns:
a. Eschartomy is late management.
b. Water, solutes and protein loss from
extracellular to intracellular so albumin is given in 1st half of fluid
resuscitation.
c. Full thickness burns managed by antibiotic
dressing.
d. Monitoring of fluid resuscitation by uine out
put, should B/W 0.5- 1ml/kg/hr.
e. children with burns >15% require fluid
resuscitation.
209. Neurofibromatosis:
a. Arise from connective
tissue of nerve sheath.
b. Tumor commonly change into
sarcoma.
c. In local type,
paraesthesia occur from pressure of tumor.
d. Never requires treatment.
e. Excise with 2cm normal
margins.
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