General Surgery : fcps mcqs

MCQs FCPS – II

Q.1. Commonest cause of esophageal rupture is

a. Iatrogenic Instrumentation

b. Berret Oesophagus

c. Mallory vein syndrome

d. Caustic

e. Borrhere syndrome

Q.2. Anaerobic bacteria which produces & lactones & causes pelvic abdominal infection is:

Acine bacter
Bacteroids
E – coli
Kletesrelle
Staphylococci

Q.3. Tumour is related to:

Age
Sex
Duration of symptoms
Poor response to treatment
Genetic abnormalities

Q.4. Appropriate management of olecrenon bursitis:

Surgical excision with epiphyseal line
Cortisone Injection
Conservative
Aspiration of burse
Inesim & drainage

Q.5. 18 years old boy while playing football fell on ground. Testis become swellon & tender with redness on scrotme. Diagnosis is:

a. Torsion of testis

b. Undeserved testis

c. Inguinal hernia

d. Vericoceole

e. Hydroceole

Q.6. A man receives gunshot round in Rt. mid arm. Muscles entreous nerve is paralyzed & Rt. Redial pulse is week. Management line is:

Artery repair followed by nerve
Treatment delayed for 6 weeks
Surgical depridement & excision of mind
Nerve repair
Angioplasty , nerve repair , myocutonus flep for oppenon pollies

Q.7. 18 years old boy after RTA presented with absent leg pulse and inability to walk. Diagnosis is:

a. Femoral fracture with artery insbment

b. Femoral fracture

c. Soft tissue injury

d. Femoral artery rupture

e. Sciatic nerve damage

Q.8. A child of 8 days saline is pouring out from mouth Oesophageal atresie diagnosed, Incorrect statement about disease is:

Right sternotomy is performed

Lower segment of oesophagus connects with trochee

Cyanosis & choling on feeding is prisent

Troches oesophageal fistule is present

Troches connects with oesophagus at upper end

Q.9. If a child is diagnosed as hypertropic pyloric stenosis. Incorrect statement is:

a. Barium meal is Investigation of choice

b. Ultrasound is Investigation of choice

c. Most commonly seen 4 weeks after birth

d. Occurs commonly in reles

e. Appropriate surgical Rx recovery is 100%

Q.10. 33 years women with malignant parotid tumour:

a. Total peratoidectomy (superfeel & deep) is indicated

b. Sqnoms cell ce = parotid exhibits only ausdertely enaligment behavior

c. Acinor ce = is highly aggressive malignant tumour of parotid

d. Regional mode describe for occult relastess not indicated for malignancy

e. Facial area preservative should be attempted while surgical mergis of resection are free of tumour

Q.11. APR is performed in man aged 45 years. 2 units of blood transfused. Hemolytic reaction is marbed by:

a. Urtricorial rashes

b. Muscle spasm

c. Sbine rashes

d. Fever

e. Blooding from L/V lines, drains, catheters

Q.12. Acute necrotizing fascists. Incorrect statement is:

a. Is caused by clostridium perfruiges

b. Faciotomy is performed

c. It spreads in facial pelvis

d. Diabetic are more prove to it

e. Untreated it will lead to gangrene & MSOF

Q.13. A woman has red tumour mass in anal canal. Fresh blood on defection observed. What is management?

Esubion of mass
Hemorrhoidectomy
Ligature of Hemorrhoid
Stapler Hemorrhoidectomy
Colostomy

Q.14. A man of 45 years present with pain on defection. Rx of patient

Lateral sphicterotomy
Fressirectomy
Conservative treatment
Arelgesic area
Bed rest

Q.15 A woman of 45 years multiple simeses in breast with yellowish discharge. Diagnosis is:

a. Breast disease

b. Acute bacterial restits

c. Ce: Breast

d. Duct papillae

e. Cystoserca phylloids

Q.16. 65 years old man went in wedding party where he eat med. In night he developed haenetemass with BP 80/60 more Hg & pulse 140/min. Diagnosis is:

GORD
Oesophageal verices
Gastritis
Peptic ulcer
Achbsia cardiac

Q.17. Most dangerous complication after pocking of liver ingenious is:

a. Extraheptic ingenious

b. Biliary leakage

c. Pancreatic injury

d. Biliary structure

e. Compression of IVC & low feeling of Rt atrium

Q.18. 15 years old girl after RTA, spleen is ruptured & teased. What is the management?

a. Splanosrleply

b. Splarectomy

c. Conservative management

d. Portial segmental resection

e. Immediate laperatomy

Q.19. Interoperative U/S is used in hepatic cellular carcinoma at the time of operation for detection of:

Extra hepatic tumour
Tumour of parenchange of liver
No other satellite foci are present
Cirrhosis of liver
Locate lesion in relation to hepatic views, metastasis in liver

Q.20. In cholengio carcinoma filling defect is seen secondary to:

Sclerosing cholagitis
Choledocholthisis
Hepato cellular carcinoma
Parasitic Infestelor with clonorcts siness
Cystic disease if biliary irect

Q.21. In a patient aged 23 years, I/V eamule is put on amble limb is swellon & tender. Blood culture shows green +ve cocci. Management is:

I/V antibiotic
Strapping the foot
Elevating the foot
Surgical Debridement
Rest

Q.22. In RTA child gets head injury. What is most appropriate diagnostic investigation?

a. CT scan of skull

b. X-Ray of skull

c. MRI

d. Nuclear scintigraphy

e. Cerebral angiography

Q.23. In 30 years old man swelling infront of neck ngnes with deglutition, not fixed to sbn. Investigation used:

U/S guided FNAC
FNAC
Thyroid scan
U/S of thyroid
CT scan

Q.24. Kulchitic infection are characterized by:

Lymphodenopethy
Arthrolgic
Hepetoregety
Splenoegly
Fever

Q.25. Appropriate treatment of DCIS is:

a. Mestectomy

b. Modified radical mastectomy

c. Conservative

d. Bilateral mastectomy

e. Patey mastectomy

Q.26. Stored blood is deficient in coagulation factor in blood bank

a. I & II

b. XI & XII

c. IX & VIII

d. IV & III

e. V & VIII

Q.27. Structures not removed patey mastectomy are:

Nipple & areole
Skin
Breast tissue
Lymph nodes
Pastorates major

Q.28. Indication of positive end expiratory pressure (PEEP) ventilation. Include all of the following excepts:

Low cardiac output
Profound Hypoxemia
Atelectasis
Massive chest well injuries
Significant physiologic shunting

Q.29. Abdominal infection discharging wounds has overripe cheese cucumbert small is caused by:

a. Pyocyareous

b. Proteins vulgarism

c. Bacteriods

d. Pseudomonas

e. E – Coli

Q.30. Most common indication for edmision for trerme head injured patient to hospital to:

a. Vomiting

b. Hypotension

c. Alcohol Intoxication

d. No availability of relations

e. Severe head ach & vertigo

Q.31. Hyponatremie may present as:

a. Hippocratic faces

b. Hypotension

c. Hypertension

d. Fluffiness of face

e. Putting edema

Q.32. Inhalational anesthetic which cause distention of abdomens in patient of Intestinal obstruction at Ileum:

a. Nitrous oxide

b. Halothane

c. Ether

d. Trifluro ethane

e. Dischloro ethane

Q.33. 19 years old female (who missed menstrual periods 2 weeks ago) present with pain in RIF. Most probable cause is:

Ruptured Lutean cyst
Pelvic Inflammatory disease
Betopic pregnancy
Acute appendicitis
Acute selphagits

Q.34. A soldier fells from 20 feet height came in casualty with unconscious, bleeding from nose & ear, 2 hours back he withdraws on pressure, eye moment on deep pain & unintelligent voice. Grade of GCS is:

a. 8

b. 15

c. 5

d. 12

e. None detectable

Q.35. In sense head injury predictor of raised ICP is:

Bredgcardie
Level of consciousness
Hypotension
Vomiting
Headache

Q.36. In treatment of hemolytic reactor of blood following are correct expect:

HCO₃
Steroids
R/V fluids
Foley’s catheter
Manitol

Q.37. Most common of Intestinal abstruction in neonate are all expect:

a. Duodenal atrase

b. Vomiting

c. Ileum atrese

d. Imperforate aims

e. Hirrchspring disease

Q.38. K⁺, H⁺, NH³ secreted by which part of kidney:

a. Loop of henle

b. Glomeration

c. Collecting ducts

d. Pelvis of kidney

e. Proximd convoluted tubule

Q.39. Most common cause of hypercalcium is:

Primary solitary ademore of parethyroid
Primary multiple ademore of parathyroid
Hypertensiveof parathyroid
Carcinoma of parathyroid
Phaochromocytome

Q.40. Statically most important of prognosis of carcinoma if breast is:

a. Histological states of breast

b. Lymph node involvement with retestesis

c. Differentiation of breast

d. Lymph node involvement

e. Metastasis done

Q.41. Colloid treatment in shock:

a. Defiantly superior to crystalloid in shock

b. Cause less kidney problems

c. Inferior to crystalloid in shock

d. Cause hypersthenes

e. Cause respiratory depression

Q.42. Pseudomonas infection is treated by:

a. Third generation cephalosporin

b. Imipenium

c. Aminoglyosides

d. Percllvies

e. Ampullae’s

Q.43. A woman with 1.5 cm lump in breast. Mammogram showed no abnormal finding. What test is essential to proforma next:

Excisional Biopsy
FNAC
Trucut Biopsy
CT scan
MRI

Q.44. Patient with Idiopathic anhydrous (sweating in ascille & palm) treatment is:

a. Chemical cervical sympethetectomy

b. Lumber sympethectectomy

c. Division of lower tender of bronchial plexime

d. T2 cervicodorsel sympethectectomy

e. Dorsocervical sympethectectomy

Q.45. Patient with gunshot round in abdomen. Management is:

a. Exploratory Laparotomy

b. Diagnosis peritoneal levege

c. Conservative

d. Antibiotic treatment

e. Peritoneal drainage

Q.46. A woman aged 30 years with 64% burn comes after 30 min to hospital. According to parblend formula dosage of colloid crystalloid.

800 ml / hour Ragir lactate & 200 ml / hour colloid in 7½ hours
200 ml / hour Ragir lactate & 800 ml / hour colloid in 7½ hours
200 ml / hour Ragir lactate & 200 ml / hour colloid in 7½ hours
200 ml / hour Ragir lactate & 400 ml / hour colloid in 7½ hours
1250 ml / hour Ragir lactate & 800 ml / hour colloid in 7½ hours

Q.47. In 25 years old male after RTA, Trance to Rt. testis occurs Rt. Scrotam in well developed but empty.

Dislocated testis
Hydrocole
Undescended testis
Testicular malignancy
Congenital absence of Rt. testis

Q.48. A female of 45 years used oral contraceptive pills since 4 years. Now she C/O internetent bleeding per vague is caused by:

Endometrial hyperplasia
Bioelectrical carcinoma
Cervical polyp
Ce: cervix
Senile vaginal atrophic

Q.49. Stone in chest is caused by:

Fracture of rib & stern

Fracture of first rib

Fracture of first 2 second rib

Fracture of third rib

Fracture of fourth rib

Q.50. Sarcoidosis is diagnosed by:

X-Ray chest

Estimation of ACE

Pulmonary function test

CT scan of skull

Pulmonary Bronchoscopy

Q.51. Morphine cause following actions expect:

Reduces tone of and sphueter

Absorbs electrolytes form GIT

Nausea & vomiting

Addiction

Respiratory depression

Q.52. Metabolic effect most unlikely after presented vomiting form stomach.

a. Hyperbolae

b. Hyporetrene

c. Alkaline vice

d. Hypochloranic acidosis

e. Hypokaleme

Q.53. A diabetic cricketer came in emergency department after ball injury to Rt. Tempera mandibular joint in state of semiconscious. What is most important initial investigation?

a. CT scan of skull & brain

b. Blood Sugar

c. X-Ray skull

d. X-Ray chest

e. X-Ray spine

Q.54. Common cause of spontaneous rapture of intra cerebral arteries is due to:

a. Hypertensive arteriopathy

b. Barry aneurysm

c. AV malformation

d. Coagulation disorders

e. Anti coagulant therapy

Q.55. Rectal polyp most likely to become malignant:

Villous polyp
Tubo-villous polyp
Jumtrile polyp
Hammertoes polyp
Adanomators polyp

Q.56. Most common cause of hemoptysis in person with no tuberculosis of lung present in due to:

a. Ce: Bronchus

b. Peptic ulcer

c. Mallory mass syndrome

d. Duodenal ulcer

e. Pancreatic tumor ; Bronchitis

Q.57. Initial rise after perforated duodenal ulcer is”

a. Distention of abdomen

b. Serum amylase

c. Chest pain

d. Pancreatic juice

e. Bile

Q.58. AV fistula is treated by:

a. Repair of vessels

b. Repair of vessels & bypass graft

c. Ligature of vein & artery on both ends

d. Ligature of vein above & below AV fistula

e. Prosthetic grafts

Q.59. Common sites of non union of long bones:

a. Tibia

b. Fibula

c. Femur

d. Heneries

e. Radius

Q.60. Early prostate cancer is treated by:

a. Radical prostatectomy

b. x Blockers

c. β Blockers

d. Transvasical

e. TURP

Q.61. In extensive burns graft is after:

a. 3 weeks

b. 4 weeks

c. 2 weeks

d. 1 week

e. 3 days

Q.62. Most common cause of splaractomy is:

Hereditary spharocytosis
Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpose
Tropical splanomegely
Sickle cell anemia
Acquired hemolytic anemia

Q.63. FNAC finding of breast suggestive of malignancy are:

Bpithelid dysphasia
Apocrine metaplesie
Duct papillae
Adanosis of duct
Fibroadenosis

Q.64. Keloid is commonly:

Originates from clean wound
Predisposed to malignancy
Is a form of fibrome
Treated by antibiotic
Rare in negroes

Q.65. Actinomycosis , incorrect statement is:

Predisposes to malignancy
Multiple small sinuses are found
Sulphar yellow granules are diagnosed
Treated by penicillin dabriedment
Caused by actinomycosis

Q.66. Least mephrotoric drug is

Neomycin
Polymicin
Gentamycin
Bacitrocin
Climderycine

Q.67. In colorectal surgery for reduced infection we use:

a. Mechanical bowel wash with systemic antibiotic

b. Systemic antibiotic

c. Pesenteral antibiotic

d. Mechanical bowel wash with antibiotic not absorbed

e. Mechanical bowel wash

Q.68. Fracture of hip presented as:

Externally rotated & abducted
Externally rotated & adducted
Internally rotated & adducted
Internally rotated & abducted
Flexion

Q.69. Large lesion of portwise strew berry henergrive is treated:

a. Laser destruction

b. Excision & graft cover

c. Excision with out graft cover

d. Cryotheraphy

e. Conservative

Q.70. Best operation of peptic ulcer with least recurrence chance on:

a. Vegotomy & drainage procedure

b. Highly selective vegotomy

c. Vegotomy alone

d. Drainage procedure alone

e. Gastrectomy

Q.71. Gyneuonestic:

a. Associated with leprosy

b. Occurs in down syndrome

c. Enlargement of female breast

d. Congenital one breast

e. Is due to ovarian tumour

Q.72. Most common thyroid malignancy is:

Papillary carcinoma
Follicular carcinoma
Anaplastic carcinoma
Metastatic carcinoma
Medullary carcinoma

Q.73. In infant of 1 day is in persistent cyanosis after going under GA for repair of congenital diaphragmatic hernia is due to:

Fellot of tetralogy
Congenital cardiac disease
Left to right shunt
Coarctaton of aorta
Preposition of great vessels

Q.74. A Taxi driver burst in RTA. His mouth, nose and neck are swellon. What is most important initial step to do:

Maintain an injury
Measure burn area
I/V fluids
Catheter placement
Wound clearance

Q.75. Aspiration of food in trachea bronchial tree management is:

a. Endotracheal intubations & suction

b. Cricothyroidotomy

c. N/G tube

d. H₂ blockers

e. Broad spectrum antibiotic

Q.76. 4 years old child developed cyanosis which may be due to:

a. Fellot of tetralogy

b. Coarctaton of aorta

c. Patent directs asterism

d. Preusposition of great vessels

e. Ventricular saptel defect

Q.77. 12 years old girl, in RTA, on CT san spleen ruptured & tensed, tens at mesentery of small intestine, 1000 cc blood is removed form peritoneal arty. Appropriate management is:

Splanorrbeply
Splenectomy
Iled resection
Broad spectrum antibiotics
Partial splenectomy

Q.78. 18 years old boy sustained grade 1 fracture of tibia with puckered skin over it. Best management is

Manipulation , POP & window fracture
Back slab
ORIF
Manipulation only
Wound debridenet & manipulation

Q.79. A person after RTA has tender swellon distended neck veins & muffled heart sounds. It may be due to:

Cardiac tenponada
Flail chest
Pericardits
Right ventricular falme
Bpicardits

Q.80. Modified Radial mastectomy performed local rearrenes in breast are diagnosed by:

a. CT Scan / MRI

b. FNAC

c. Mammography

d. Ultrasound of breast

e. Clinical examination

Q.81. A patient aged 45 years has Ce: Rectum 4 cm from anal verge. Most appropriate treatment is:

a. Abdomen operated resection

b. Hartman procedure

c. Anterior resection

d. Stapler gun resection & anestomies

e. Low anterime resection

Q.82. Inter abdominal hypertension is associated with:

Lapratomy
Blood transfusion
Bmbolzation
Raised intra cranial pressure
Encephelopethy

Q.83. 70 years old person with H/O myocardial infection has suddenly developed ischemia of lower beg. Incorrect statement is:

Ulceration on medical melleolies
Unable to none limb
Cold limb
Dorsdis padius not felt
Paleness present

Q.84. Mobile fluctment swelling found in breast of 25 years female

a. Fibro adenoma

b. Breast disease

c. Ducted Ce: in situ

d. Ce: Breast

e. Medially carcinoma of breast

Q.85. Lobular cystic swelling found on outer centhus of Rt. Eyelid:

Dermoid cyst
Teratome
Lipome
Neurofibrome
Lymphoma

Q.86 CT scan of skull raveled intracranial tumour causing homonymous hemoanopie. The site of lesion is:

Salle turicia
Right cerebral hemisphere
Left cerebral hemisphere
Cerebelloponture angle
Crus cerebra

Q.87. Pulsatile swelling is parepherygeal space is:

a. Chemodectome

b. Carotid body tumour

c. Aberrant carotid artery

d. Thyroid

e. Parathyroid

Q.88. Swelling found in front of ear painless since 2 years. Since 5 days swelling is painful, tender & fixed to underlying skins:

Plaomorphic ademore of parotid
Parotid abscess
Warthin tumour
Acinar Ce: parotid
Squenous Ce: parotid

Q.89. Splarectomy performed for patient with symptoms of thrombocytopic18 months later. She returned with swelling of mucous membrane of mouth, petachial hemorrhage. The cause is:

a. Accessory spleen

b. Inadequately performed splenacting

c. Vitamin C defacing

d. Vitamin K defacing

e. Vitamin A defacing

Q.90. TURP done for patient with symptoms of prostate enlargement. After 1 year patient come with dribbling of urine & incomplete erector of bladder. Appropriate investigation to perform is:

Ultrasound of abdomen
Prostate specific malignant
CT Scan of abdomen
Intravenous urography
Biopsy of prostate

Q.98. Gamre Rays are:

a. Photon

b. Electron

c. Proton

d. Neutron

e. Charged helium nuclear

Q.99. Normal portal venous pressure is:

a. 0 – 10 mm Hg

b. 20 – 40 mm Hg

c. 40 -160 mm Hg

d. 160 – 220 mm Hg

e. 220 – 440 m Hg

Q.100. Glasgow come scale composed of:

Eye response, motor response, verbal response
Bye response, papillary reflex, verbal response
Verbal response, gag reflex, papillary reflex
Motor response, verbal response, papillary reflex
Motor response, occulomotor reflex, papillary reflex

Q.101. Woman in 3^rd trimester of pregnancy with varicose vein appropriate treatment

Elastic stoking bandage
Saphenofemoral ligation
Subfascial ligation of vien
Saphenooplited ligation
Superficial venous ligation

Q.102. Best bone graft from donor is :

a. Tibia

b. Fibula

c. Hunerius

d. Fever

e. Redoes

Q.103. On laryngoscopey vocal cords is cadenaric position are:

Paralyzed & abducted
Paralyzed & bowed
Partially paralyzed
Paralyzed
Fixed

Q.104. Suitable donar of kidney transplant are all expect:

Person with serine creative 1.5 mg
Person with gunshot
Person with brain death
Person with stale wound
Person with RTA

Q.105. CMO receives patient with lacerated wound on thigh after RTA investigation schedule would be:

a. ATS

b. Foxoid & Imuoglobulin

c. No need if boaster dose 5 years ago

d. Imuoglobulin ATG

e. Active imuoglobulin

Q.106. In popliteal AV aneurysm simple excision causes.

a. Is related with DVT

b. Stenosis later on

c. No chance of amputation

d. Always result in below knee amputation

e. 50% chance of amputation

Q.107. A female with breast cover has 3.3 Nottingham Prognostic index. 15 years survival rate is:

Q.108. Most common malignancy tumour b/w age 15-25 years of age is:

a. Chordrosercome

b. Osteogenic sarcoma

c. Seminone

d. Vilus tumour

e. Neuroblastone

Q.109. Localized & moble Ce: Breat in female, appropriate treatment is:

a. Wide local excision

b. Local excision of mass

c. Radical modified mastectomy

d. Chemotherapy

e. Hernol therapy

Q.110. Tumour in pelvis o kidney found. Appropriate treatment is:

Nephro ureteractomy
Radical rephaectomy
Chemo-Radiation
Radiotherapy

e. Laparoscopic rephactomy

Q.111. Tumour of kidney is best approached through:

a. Trans abdominal approach

b. Lower paranediem incisors

c. Extra peritoneal approach

d. Lumber extra peritoneal approach

e. Middle incisors

Q.112. Appendicular mass is treated by:

Oschur sharren therapy
Antibiotic
Laparotomy
Laparoscopic appendectomy
Conservation

Q.113. Beast urinary diversion in patient with total cystectomy is:

Ileal conduit
Uretera sigmiodortomy
Bladder substitute & augmentation
Bladder reconstruction
Continued urinary diversion

Q.114. Total gastrectomy comprises of

Stomach en bloc, greeter & lesser onention
Stomach, spleen, pancreas & lymph nodes
⅔ of stomach, spleen, lymph nodes
stomach, pre & post pyloric lymph nodes
Lower third of stomach, lymph nodes & spleen

Q.115. Carotid body tumour syndrome comes except

a. Recurrent laryngeal N plesy

b. Bruit

c. Pushing tonsil medially & arteriorly

d. May enseath adjacent cranial nerves & base of skull

e. Catecholamine production

Q.116. Nerve involved in thoreive outlet syndrome.

a. Ulcer nerve

b. Median nerve

c. Redial nerve

d. Parasympathetic nerve

e. Sympathetic nerve

Q.117. Cystic swelling of scrotum which is transillumiedule

Epididynal cyst
Sebaceous cyst of scrotum
Orchits
Bpididymorchits
Sperneto cevle

Q.118. Patient has bilateral knobby swelling in both loin BP 130/90 mm Hg. His brother is died of same disease & H/O haneture. It is caused by:

Polycystic kidneys
Horse shoe kidney
Bilateral hydronephrosis
Renal stone
Renal carcinoma

Q.119. Patient is refused to you for episodic pain in loin, frequency

a. Cystoscopy

b. Urine culture & sciestectomy

c. Urine for acid fast breath

d. Intravenous urography

e. Ultrasound of abdomen

Q.120. Scrotal swelling clearly separated from testis:

a. Orchits

b. Bpdidynorchuts

c. Sebaceous cyst of scrotum

d. Bpididynal cyst

e. Hydroceale

Q.121. A 2 years old child has soft swelling in floor if mouth

A type Epulid
Unreal crack
Sublingual thyroid
Thyroglossed cyst
Brachial cyst

Q.122. Ductus arteriosus:

a. Fusion of 2^nd & 3^rd bronchial clefts

b. Fusion of 3^rd & 4^th bronchial clefts

c. Persistence of distal part of 6^th aortic arch.

d. Formed by persistence of 4^th aortic arch

e. Formed by 3^rd aortic arch

Q.123. Treatment of sigmoid volulus with non middle bowel

a. Herdsman procedure

b. Resection & nestonosis

c. Resection & nestonosis with covering colostomy

d. Colostomy

e. Primary closure

Q.124. in steer wheel injury best diagnosis technique to role out rupture of duodenum:

a. Diagnostic peritoneal levage

b. Laperatomy

c. CT Scan

d. Ultrasound of abdomen

e. Angiography

Q.125. a women presents with carcinoma of breast in pregnancy

In pregnancy hormonal Rx is good
Ce: Breast in pregnancy is estrogen receptor position
Formation of pregnancy in first trimester in mandatory
Pregnancy aggravates symptoms of Ce: Breast due to hormonal situation
Chemotherapy is not hazardous to feature in 2^nd & 3^rd trimester

Q.126. Disease most prevalent in for East & Remote Africa presenting with dysphasia is:

a. Changes disease

b. Ce: oesophagus

c. Achalesia Cardic

d. Web at distal oesophagus

e. Myotonia

Q.127. Patient feels crushing pain in chest. ETT & ECG are normal. Angiography is normal. Patient feels sticking of solids & fluids during swelling. Diagnosis is:

a. Achllesic cardic

b. Myotonia

c. Diffuse oesophageal spasin

d. Ce: oesophagus

e. GORD

Q.128. A labourer is unable to walk. Most appropriate investigation to perform is:

MRI spine
Myelograply
X-Ray of spine
CT Scan
Lumber puncture

Q.129. Patient presents with distention of abdomen. Most accurate early investigation:

a. X-Ray of abdomen

b. Ultrasound of abdomen

c. CT Scan of abdomen

d. Peritoneal lavege

e. X-Ray chest

Q.130. Patient immediately has urticaried rash, asthma & fever. Later on he presents with terminal painless henative & pain in hypogastric diagnosis is:

a. Bitharziems of bladder

b. Carcinoma of kidney

c. Ravel stone

d. Utateric calculus

e. Carcinoma of prostate

Q.131. Blood incompetibity in retched by:

a. Matching with Duffy cells

b. Cross matching patient blood for Rh antibodies

c. Cross matching doner scrum with patient cells

d. Cross matching patient scrum with doner cells

e. Cross matching

Q.132. Acute pancreatic necrosis is managed by:

Surgical intervention
Percutanoues drainage
Conservation
Antibiotic
I/N fluids

Q.133. Female belonging to farmer family suffers from cold & flu off & of she presents with swelling on medial centhis of eye. Palpable lymph nodes are presents. Most likely diagnosis is:

Basal cell carcinoma
Malignant relenore
Nasolacrmet Cyst
Sebaceous Cyst
Sqneous cell carcinoma

Q.134. Patient with bloody discharge from nipple. Physical examination is normaol. FNAC shows malignant cells. Most likely diagnosis:

Duct ectasia
Paget disease of breast
Fibro adenoma
Carcinoma of breast
Duct papillae

Q.135. Patient presents with depressed # skull but no neurological signs are presents. Patient is hemadynamically stable. Best may to average this patient:

a. Antibiotic

b. Conservative management

c. Left alone

d. Observe patient & give I/V lie

e. Match for symptoms to develop & then operate

Q.136. Patient unable to walk not recognizes his relatives. Diagnosis is:

Brain tumour
Hydrocephalus
Chronic subdural heretore
Subarechorid knowledge
Dementia

Q.137. Patient loses covcuissis with jerky moment of Lt. side of body. Appropriate investigation is:

a. EEG

b. MRI

c. CT Scan

d. Myelography

e. X-Ray Skull

Q.138. Chest wall tumours are best treated by:

Biopsy with irradiation
Chemotherapy
Wide local excision after biopsy
Radiotherapy
Excision of lesion

Q.139. Substantive ventilation in disturbed by:

a. Kyphoscoliosis

b. Excavation pactis

c. Pacts carination

d. Cervical rib

e. Rnewothorax

Q.140. A patient with hemoptysis on endoscopy it was found to be gastric erosion. Bleeding is not controlled by conservative methods. Best way of management is:

a. Hemigastractomy

b. Lower ⅓ gastructomy

c. Upper ⅔ gastructomy

d. Total gastructomy

e. Lighting bleeding vessels, vegotomy & hemigastructomy

Q.141. A 2 years old child presents with dull ache, fever, inability to swallow, diagnosis is:

Acute tonsillitis
Luding angina
Achlasic cardiac
Ce: oesophagus
Oesophagus Artesia

Q.142. A female presents with 2 cm exoplytic lesion at lip which is ulcerated. Best method of treatment is:

Fria procedure
Chemotherapy
Wide local excision
Muscle flap free
Radiotherapy

Q.143. Burns which needs immediate escherotomy

Burn with sense pain
Burn with redness & esytleme
Burn on fore arm
Superficial burn on back side of elbow
Deep burns on back side of elbow

Q.144. Patient comes in emergency after RTA with ecclysis on Left side of chest. Breath sounds on left side are not audible. X-Ray shows collapse of left lung. Diagnosis is:

a. Prewothorax

b. Flail chest

c. Open premothorax

d. Hydrothorax

e. Broken ribs

Q.145. In snprocoudyler fracture of femur mist important first thing to note is:

a. Absence of poplited pulse

b. Loss of distal pulses

c. Integrity of femur bone

d. Compartment syndrome

e. Nerve injury

Q.146. Congenital tortillas is caused by:

a. Infection of stermochaidonestroid

b. Posterin fosse tumours

c. Condition of carnival spine eg discitis

d. Pheldomyorsrence of stauncher demistoid

e. Starnoustoid tumour by contraction of starnoustoid

Q.147. Form medial meniscus is diagnosed by:

a. Arthogram

b. CT scan

c. MRI

d. X-Ray knee

e. Ultrasound

Q.148. Cysts sarcoma phylloid tumour of breast features except:

a. Sarcomatous change is seen in giant fibro edema

b. Is bemgin lesion

c. Ulceration of skin

d. Metastasizes via blood stream

e. Wide local excision

Q.149. Tumour least sensitive to chemotherapy are :

a. Chorio carcinoma

b. Pancreatic cancer

c. Prostate cancer

d. Brest cancer

e. Testicular cancer

Q.150. Tumour related to BRCA I & BRCA II mutation gene:

a. Breast

b. Ovary

c. Cervix

d. Colon

e. Prostate

Q.151. Aneurysm most likely to rupture are:

Mycotic aneurysm
Traumatic aneurysm
Athero sclerotic aneurysm
Secular aneurysm
Fusiform aneurysm

Q.152. Tumours least likely to spread to bones are:

Lung cancer
Breast cancer
Thyroid cancer
Kidney cancer
Prostate cancer

Q.153. After RTA patient has suspected major vessel injury. X-Ray of chest shows:

a. Capping of pleura

b. Widening of mediators

c. Cardio megely

d. Fractured rib

e. Pnomothorax

Q.154. A female has breast lump 5cm X 4cm with Ipsilateral mobile auxiliary nodes, no metastasis, stage is:

Stage I
Stage II
Stage III A
Stage III B
Stage IV

Q.155. commonest site of tubal pregnancy is:

Interstitial
Ostune
Anpula
Fribriated end
Isthmus

Q.156. In 30 years old patient with 30% burn, administration of colloid & crystalloid depends on:

Urinary output / hour
Depth of burn
Hemetcrit rebie
Blood pressure measurement
Acid base balance

Q.157. A 55 year of lady on laperatomy was found non obstructive lesion of transverse colon & metastasize liver lesion. Best treatment is:

a. Colostomy

b. Transverse colostomy & resection of liver lesion

c. Biopsy of liver lesion & close abdomen

d. Resection of liver lesion only

e. Right hemi colostomy

Q.158. Annular pancreas partially obstructing second part of duodam. Best treatment option is:

a. Division of annular ring

b. Durdenojujnostomy

c. Resection of pancreas

d. Whipple procedure

e. Conservation

Q.159. in hemophilic patient factor VIII is not found. Patient can be given:

Cryopredpitate
Whole blood
Packed cells
Platelets aggregate
Albumin

Q.160. A patient presents with antral ce: with 20% reduction of weight. Best way of nutrition:

Feeding jujenostomy
Gastrostomy
Hyper alimentation
By nesogastric tube
Parenterel nutrition

Q.161. Most common symptoms seen in congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis in a child is:

Effortless vomiting
Mass in abdomen
Blood in vomiting
Bile in vomiting
Diarrhea

Q.162.. Most common metabolic disorder seen in pyloric stenosis

a. Metabolic acidosis

b. Respiratory acidosis

c. Respiratory albelosis

d. Hypercholeric albelosis

e. Hypokalenic albelosis with academia

Q.163. A 50 year old female 60 kg weight presents with burn on both upper extremities & anterior side of chest & abdomen. Initial fluid requirement may be:

100 ml /hour
300 ml /hour
600 ml /hour
900 ml /hour
1200 ml /hour

Q.164. Zollugio bllision syndrome is due to:

a. Gastrinoma

b. CCK ome

c. Insuliuone

d. VIP ome

e. Serotinoma

Q.165. Keloid

Outgrows original scar
More common in white them in black
Progresses to malignancy
Usually subsides with time
Most common in children

Q.166. Lesion which is not premalignant:

Peutz jaghar syndrome
Crohn disease
Ulcerative colitis
Villous adenoma
Choladeochel cyst

Q.167. Fissure in ano:

a. More than 80% are present out to end canal

b. Division of internal sphincter is Rx of choice

c. Is treated by scbrotherapy

d. Causes painless and bleeding

e. Proctoscopy performed in acute cases

Q.168. Breast carcinoma with most favourable progress:

a. Medillary carcinoma

b. Colloid carcinoma

c. Ductel carcinoma with infiltration

d. Inflammatory carcinoma

e. Lobular carcinoma

Q.169. Patient experiences calf pain on walking but on standing pain is no reliened. It may be:

a. Deep vein thrombosis

b. Anterior compartment syndrome

c. Stress fracture of fibula

d. Femoral artery stenosis

e. Spinal stenosis

Q.170. In RTA severe chest trauma cause PCO₂ 60 mm Hg ventilation is maintained by:

Technical ventilation
Tracheotomy
Tube thorecostomy
Oxygen by tube
Cardio pulmonary resuscitation

Q.171.. Patient with depressed fracture of skull with or without symptoms. Best treatment option is:

a. Leave the skull to heel itself

b. Watch for symptoms to develop & then operate

c. Observe the patient

d. Maintain I/V line

e. Give antibiotic

Q.172. On 5^th OPD of cholecystactomy in a asymptomatic patient serum Na⁺ cane 123 meq/L. Best management option is:

Repeat serum Na⁺again
Infuse hypertonic solution
Intake of salt increased
Infuse Ringolactute solution / 5% D/water
Restriction of water

Q.173. TURP done in patient on evening patient develops vomiting dehydration. It may my due to:

a. Water Intoxication

b. Rupture of urinary bladder

c. Spinal anesthesia complication

d. Operative trauma

e. Fever

Q.174. Most common symptoms of bladder tumour is:

Water Intoxication
Painless haeneturie
Pain in hypogastria
Distention of abdomen
Frequency of micturation

Q.175. Dyspnee in laryngeal oedane is:

a. Inspiratory

b. Expiratory

c. Both inspiratory & expiratory

d. Inspiratory in inflaetory condition, expiratory in tumour

e. Expiratory in inflaetory condition, inspiratroy in tumour

Q.176. In highly selective vagotomy which statement is incorrect:

a. Celiac & hepatic branches excised

b. Spore nerve of gressi

c. Spore nerve of later get

d. Anterior & posterior vagus verves are preserved

e. All branches to fudis & body of stomach are not divided

Q.177. A female after mastectomy age 45 years is using taroxfus for 4 years. Now she c/o interventent bleeding per vagina which is caused by:

a. Ce: cervix

b. Cervid polyp

c. Endometrial carcinoma

d. Endometrial hyperplasia

e. Senile vaginal atrophy

Q.178. Defect in bone due to demeverdization of calcium occurs in:

a. Ostaomalacia

b. Ostaogenesis, imperfecte

c. Ostaoperosis

d. Ostaitis deformous

e. Osteopanie

Q.179. Best means of detecting rerectobility of pancreatic cancer:

a. Spinal CT scan

b. Ultrasound

c. ERCP

d. Laparoscopy

e. MRCP

Q.180. Bed ridden patient with fracture of femur experiences sudden pain in chest & dysprae. It may be due to:

Pulmonary embolism
Pulmonary oedeme
Bronchial adenoma
Bronchogenic carcinoma
Pulmonary tuberculosis

Q.181. After ERCP to remove stone for CBD in choledocho lithiasis , patient received inflammation & pancreatetic. Best investigation in this condition is:

Ultrasound of abdomen
Laparoscopy
CT Scan
MRCP
PTC

Q.182. Proto canal shunt is indicated when:

When albium is low
Increasing Jaundice
Child B grade patient
Child C grade patient
Recurrent attacks of haenetiness not controlled with vasopressin or sclerosis is good risk cirrhotic patient.

Q.183. Post splamactomy sepsis is caused by:

a. H. influenza, Pseudonyms, E coli

b. Mycobacterium, tuberculosis, Neissric, gonococci

c. Salmonella typhi, streptococcus, staphylococcus

d. Staphylococcus nerves, clostridia relchia, clostridia titanium

e. Streptococcus pneoma , H. influenza, E coli, Nerssia, mangetides

Q.184. Factors (conditions) causing least development of oral cancer:

Apthous ulcer
Submocoss fibrosis
Lauboplabia
Erythropebia
Tobacco chewing

Q.185. Mallory weiss syndrome is due to:

a. Oesophageal web

b. Hypertrophic ulcer of oesophagus

c. Oesophageal structure

d. Carcinoma of oesophagus

e. Vertical split in gastric mucosa at cardiac due to vigorous vomiting

Q.186. In reconstruction of breast following statement is incorrect:

a. Reconstruction deferred till radiotherapy & chemotherapy

b. Reconstruction of breast done immediately after mastectomy for LCES

c. Reconstruction does not interface with radiotherapy

d. Immediately after mastectomy breast reconstruction my be done

e. Breast reconstruction by TRAM flap & silicone gel

Q.187. In cushing syndrome following statement is incorrect:

a. Skin is thickened

b. Weight may not be necessarily gained

c. Fossil plethora, noon face, buffalo lump, central obesity

d. Hypertension, glucose intolerance, hirsuitasion, menstrual irregularity

e. Muscles weakness, depression, tiredness, impotence, acne & early brushing

Q.188. A 35 year old woman in 24 week of pregnancy presents with breast cancer with paudorange breast 6 x 7 cm lump in right breast, inflammatory changes in skin over breast. Best management option is:

a. Chemotherapy

b. Mastectomy with axillary clearance

c. Hormonal treatment

d. Radical mastectomy

e. Radiotherapy

Q.189. A young female presents with bilateral cystic lesion in breast which has relation with menstruation

a. Fibro cystic disease of breast

b. Galectocaole

c. Fibro adenoma

d. Papillary introduced adenoma

e. Breast carcinoma

Q.190. A diabetic patient receives trauma

Clostridium melchium
Clostridium tatonic
Streptococcus
Staphylococcus
Pnemococcus

Q.191. A 9 month old child present swelling on lateral side of neck, cystic in nature, brilliantly transilluminate.

Cystic hygrona
Dervoid cyst
Tubercular disease
Chanodectone
Lymphoma

Q.192. A cystic swelling is present on lateral side of chest which has impulse on coughing positive:

Empyence necessitous
Tuberculosis disease
Pnemothorax
Lipoma
Sebaceous cyst

Q.193. A patient with hypercelcaine due to hyperparethyroidisium serum calcium is 13.3g (9-118). Best initial treatment option is:

Bisphosphonate therapy
Dehydration
Parathyroidectomy
Partial Parathyroidectomy
Diverties

Q.194. Long term use of calcium hydroxyl gel causes:

Constipation
Vomiting
Diarrhea
Dehydration
Fever

Q.195. Midline swelling of neck b/w snprahyroid region & suleventel region which does not move with swelling or tongue protrusion:

Thyroglossed cyst
Bronchial cyst
Submandibular sidectosis
Metostatic tumour
Tuberculoses lymphadenitis

Q.196. After appendectomy 1 cm carcinoid is found in middle of appendix. Best treatment option is:

a. Right hemialectomy

b. Simple appendectomy

c. Chemotherapy

d. Radiotherapy

e. Colostomy

Q.197. X fetoprotein is drugs increased:

Hepato cellular carcinoma
Colonic carcinoma
Breast carcinoma
Prostate carcinoma
Testicular carcinoma

Q.198. Hyperacute rejection is due to:

a. Major HLS complex incompatibility

b. Antibodies against HLA class I antigen or ABO incompatible blood

c. HLA class I antigen

d. Cytotaxic T lymphocytes

e. Helper Y lymphocytes

Q.199. An 11 year old child presents with 100 F^o fever, swelling on both sides of face, swelling in scrotum which was warm, red & tender. Diagnosis is:

Viral orchites
Epididyno orchites
Torsion of testis
Testicular carcinoma
Undasended testis

Q.200. A 30 year person suffering from fever for 16 days. Now he c/o pain in abdomen with distention of abdomen. Bowel sounds are sluggish. Most appropriate test for diagnosis is:

Typhoid test
Entanoeche Histolytic test
Ultrasound of abdomen
CT Scan of abdomen
Chest X-Ray

Q.201. High ligation of vericocale results in:

Atrophy of testis
Sterility
Importance
High attachment of testis
Hydroceole

Q.202. Acute choleystitis is diagnosed by:

a. Ultrasound of abdomen

b. ERCP

c. MRCP

d. CT Scan

e. PTC

Q.203. Patient suddenly develops pain in calf. On doppler ultrasound study clots of blood are found in lower link vessels. Best management is:

a. IVC filter, nerfarim therapy

b. 75 IU heparin I/V then 1000-200 IU daily

c. 5000 units of Injection strepts kinas

d. 5000 units heparin I/V, embolectomy & thoubolysis

e. analgesic

Q.204. Elective cholecystectomy done of 55 year old woman. On 5^th OPD nesogestric tube is still in place. Ilans prolonged with skin dry dehydrated. PCO₂ 50 mm Hg, HCO₃ 50 mg, serum K⁺ 3.1, serum Na⁺132 meq/L & PH 7.55. What is metabolic disturbance.

Metabolic alkalosis with respiratory compensation
Combined metabolic alkalosis & respiratory acidosis
Metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation
Respiratory alkalosis
Uncompensation metabolic alkalosis

Q.205. 74 year old patient presents with acute retention of urine with distention of bladder. On DRE prostate is hard. PSA is 25 m mol/L. Diagnosis:

Prostatic carcinoma
Bladder carcinoma
Colon carcinoma
Pancreatic carcinoma
Renal carcinoma

Q.206. A 50 year old man who has take corrosive presents wit inability to swallow solid foods, weight loss & dysphagia. Best operative method is:

Santoz tube
Oesophageal prosthesis
Ivor lewis oesophagectomy
Oesophageal dilatation
Heller cardioinjotomy

Q.207. In 4 month old child mother has noticed tufts of hairs black spot & a pit on lower back. It may be:

Spine bifida occulte
Spider Naevi
Haenengione
Henigoceole
Hemingomueloceole

Q.208. A 45 year old female presents with progressive dysphagia loss of weight & muscle nesting. Best operative method is:

Santoz tube
Ivor lewis oesophagectomy
Oesophageal prosthesis
Heller cardioinotomy
Oesophageal dilatation

Q.209. After trauma from which part of body nitrogen stores are remove?

Adipose tissue
Bone
Subcutaneous tissues
Skeletal muscle
Liver

Q.210. Paget schroeter syndrome is:

Thrombosis of axillary veins
Subclarion vein thrombosis leading to edema, arm discoloration & distention of superfail vein
Embolism of axillary artery
Compression of brachial artery
Thrombosis of radial artery

Q.211. There is close association between:

a. Duodenal ulcer and cancer

b. Duodenal ulcer and pancreatic cell Islet tumour

c. Duodenal ulcer and congenital heart disease

d. Gastric ulcer and gastric carcinoma

e. Duodenal ulcer and carcinoma

Q.212. Fat necrosis of breast incorrect statement is:

Predisposes to malignancy
There is H/O trauma
Occurs in woman with pendulous breast
There is local necrosis
Treated by segmentectomy

Q.213. Congenital torticollis is due to:

a. Infarction of starnocheidomastoid

b. Rhehdomyone of starnocheidomastoid

c. Mol development of clavicle

d. Hemi paresis

e. Hemi vertebra

Q.214. In diabetic patient intra arterial consequences are:

a. Lerich syndrome

b. Thrombosis of femoral artery

c. Thrombosis of Iliac artery

d. Atharona of arteries resulting in Isclone

e. Thrombosis of palatial artery

Q.215. A patient with pain on walking He experiences pain in buttock. He is impotent. What is the cause?

Aorta Iliac occlusion
Femoral occlusion
Iliac artery occlusion
External Iliac artery occlusion
Internal Iliac artery occlusion

Q.216. Fibrocystic disease of breast:

Not occurs after menopause
Pain in relieved by bromocripture ( Danazol )
Pain in severe 2 days after ovulation
Carry out biopsy on very localized tender area
Coffee drinking is encouraged

Q.217. Treatment of Kaloid:

a. Expectant

b. Radiation therapy

c. Intralesional injection of tridomasine

d. Surgical excision

e. Chemotherapy

Q.218. Kaloid:

Is a form of fibroma
Occurs in clean wounds
Never occurs in Nagroes
Progresses to malignancy
Outgrows original scar

Q.219. Paget disease of breast is:

Usually bilateral
Treated by mastectomy
No palpable mass is present
Does not accompany malignancy underlying
Prognosis is not related to tumour stage

Q.220. Breast lump 1 x 1 cm found on outer inner quadrant. FNAC revealed malignant cells. Best treatment option is:

Lumpectomy
Lumpectomy with axillary clearance
Lumpectomy with axillary clearance & radiotherapy
Lumpectomy with axillary clearance, rediptherapy & chemotherapy
Radical mastectomy

Q.221. A housewife presents with severe painful Index. It may be due to:

Felon
Acute paronychie
Acute epinychie
Palmer space infection
Flexor tender sleuth infection

Q.222. After fracture of femur in RTA patient is tachypnic, breathless with petachial patches on skin. It is caused by:

Fat embolism
Thrombocytopenic
Pulmonary embolism
Respiratory failure
ARDS

Q.223. A surgeon operating for lump of breast was informed that patient has developed hepatitis B:

Surgeon must refuse from surgery
Ignore it as hepatitis B is self limiting disease
Make preparation to protect from infection & then operate
Take Inuroglobl1ine & operate after 1 week
Take vaccine & operate after 1 week

Q.224. Patient was treated for chronic duodenal ulcer but now he has effortless vomiting 4-5 times a day. Patient is cold clammy and dehydration. Best regiven for this patient is:

Dorrow solution
Ringer lactate solution
N/Saline solution
D/Saline solution
5% D/W solution

Q.225. Patient operated for mastectomy 6 months ago now presents with fracture of femur. What is treatment now?

Internal fixation with chemotherapy
Radiotherapy done
Treatment of fracture done
Chemotherapy done
Radiotherapy & chemotherapy

Q.226. Bladder tumour malignancy depends upon:

Depth of Invasion
Size & number of tumour
Histological status
Distant metastasis
Lymph node & vascular invasion

Q.227. Detrusor muscle is innervated by:

a. Iliohypogastric nerve

b. Sympathetic supply from T₁₀ – L₅

c. Pelvic splenchronic nerves via S₂ – S₄

d. L₄ L₅ S₁

e. S₁ , S₂

Q.228. Lavator one muscle is innervated by:

a. Iliohypogastric nerve

b. S₃ , S₄

c. S₂ , S₃

d. S₁ , S₂

e. L₄ L₅ S₁

Q.229. Trigone & proximal urethra is innervated by:

a. S2 – S4 nerve from pudenda nerve

b. Pelvic splenchronic nerve via S2 – S4

c. Iliohypogastric nerve

d. Sciatic nerve

e. L₄ L₅ S₁

Q.230. Initial rise in intracranial pressure is monitored by:

a. Bradycardia

b. Level of consciousness

c. Blood pressure

d. Dilated pupil

e. Pulse

Q.231. A diabetic cricketer was hit on temporal region by a ball. Initially he was blackouted later after 2 hours he becomes unconscious. His initial treatment is:

Burn hole surgery
Urgent CT Scan
X-Ray skull
Antibiotic
I/V line

Q.232. A 30 year old patient with 3 x 4 cm lump in breast with multiple sinuses from which dirty yellow fluid coming out, diagnosis is:

Acute bacterial mastitis
Breast abscess
Actimonyocosis
Ca: Breast
Tuberculosis of breast

Q.233. Glasgow come scale consists of:

a. Verbal response, eye opening, motor response

b. Pupillary reflex, eye opening, motor response

c. Verbal response, gag reflex, pupillary reflex

d. Motor response, occulomotor reflex, pupillary reflex

e. Motor response, verbal response, pupillary reflex

Q.234. A patient resents with cough, hemoptysis & frank yellow spectrum X-Ray showed cavity filled with fluid. Previously ATT full course was admistered. Diagnosis is:

a. Aspergilloma

b. Old heeled tuberculosis lesion

c. Emphysematous cyst

d. Bronchogenic carcinoma

e. Tuberculosis

Q.235. In head trauma patient glasgow come scale in withdraws, open eyes on pricking the arm, confused. What level it demotes?

Q.236. A housewife in kitchen was burn on face, charring of right upper arm & chest. She c/o severe headache, light headedness. What should be done?

Level of PCO2, PO2 & carboxy Hb
Cricothyroidectomy
I/V antibiotics
I/V fluids
Topical dressing

Q.237. In stress incontinues voiding is rapidly improved by:

a. a blockers

b. β blockers

c. 5 alpha reductose inhibitors

d. Transurethral tharms ablative therapy

e. Anti choluerges

General Surgery

Wednesday, 29 January 2014

fcps mcqs

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