Q56. Endoscopic stone extraction from CBD is not
possible in all except?
a) Multiple CBD stones
b) Intrahepatic stones
c) Multiple Gallstones
d) Prior Gastrectomy
e)Duodenal diverticula
57. What is the management of choledochal cyst adherent to
portal vein?
a) Excision and Roux en y hepaticojejunostomy
b)Internal drainage into roux en y jejunal limb
c) Hepatic lobectomy
d) The internal lining of the cyst can be excised, leaving
the external portion of the cyst
wall intact.
e) Marsupialization
58. The most common cystic disease of the spleen is
a) Hydatic cyst of spleen
b) Pseudo cyst of the spleen
c) Columnar lined cyst of spleen
d) Cystic lymphangioma
e) Dermoid cyst
59. OPSI is commonest in splenectomy done for
a) Thalassemia
b) Trauma
c) Hereditary Spherocytosis
d) ITP
e) Sickle cell disease
Q60. Which of the following is not true regarding wandering
spleen?
a) The spleen is attached to a long vascular pedicle
without the usual mesenteric
attachments.
b) Torsion and infarction of the spleen are common
complications
c) There is congenital atresia of the dorsal mesogastrium in
children
d) Splenectomy is required in all cases
e) May present as acute abdomen
61. Treatment for
bleeding duodenal diverticulum is
a) Diverticulectomy
b) Diverticulopexy
c) Diverticulization
d) Subtotal diverticulectomy
e) Gastro-jejunostomy
62. Which of the
following does not appear to cause early dumping
a) Serotonin
b) Bradykinin
c) Neurotensin
d) Secretin
e)Enteroglucagon
63. Which is false
for GIST (Gastro intestinal stromal tumor) of stomach
a) It is the same as leiomyoma and leomyosarcoma as
described previously.
b) origin is from mucosa from the interstitial cells of
Cajal
c) Associated with C-Kit Mutation
d) Imatinab is a new effective drug for adjuvant therapy
e) Detection of KIT protein distiguishes GIST from smooth
muscle tumors
64. Most important investigation for Dysphagia in 60 year
old is
a) Upper GI
Endoscopy
b) CT Thorax
c) Barium meal X-ray
d) MRI Scan
e) Laproscopy
65. Maximum potassium concentration is seen in
a)
Saliva
b)
Gastric secretions
c)
Jejunum
d)
Bile
e)
Colon
66. Which of the following muscles do not form the posterior
relation of breast?
a) Pectoralis major
b) Serratus Anterior
c) Rectus Abdominis
d) Lattismus Dorsi
e) Pectoralis minor
67. Minimum number of lymph nodes to be dissected in
Axillary sampling in brest
conservation
surgery is
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
e) 10
68. Which of the following is a contraindication for breast
conserving surgery (BCT)?
a) Small lump to breast ratio
b) Central breast tumor mass
c) Breast Tumor size less than 5 cm
d) Young age
e) Old age
69. Which of the following is not an indication for
admission in a case of burns
a) Full thickness burns more than 5% of total body surface
area (TBSA)
b) Partial thickness burns more than 10% in adults
c) Partial thickness burns more than 10% in children
d) Inhalationsl burns
e) Electrical burns
70. Which is the site for escharotomies in extremities for
deep burns?
a) Anterior aspect
b) Posterior Aspect of the limb
c) Medial or lateral aspect of limb
d) It can be anywhere
e)None of the above
71. The most common
Vein to be involved in Extrahepatic portal hypertension in chronic pancreatitis is
a) Portal vein
b) Splenic vein
c) Superior mesenteric vein
d) Inferior mesenteric vein
e) Inferior vena cava
72. Which one is a definite urgent indication of
thoracotomy:
a)Bilateral hemothorax
b)Tension pneumothorax containing more than 1.5 litres of
air
c)Flail chest with more than 10 ribs fracture
d)Ahemothorax draining more than 200ml per hour
e)All of the above
73. Which one of the following is false regarding hernias:
a) Inguinal hernia is superomedial to pubic tubercle
b) Femoral hernia is inferolateral to pubic tubercle
c) Men are more likely to have inguinal hernia than females
d) Men are more likely to have femoral hernia than females
e) Inguinal hernia are more common in females
74. A lesion typically found on legs in diabetics
a) Erythema nodosum
b) Necrobiosis lipoidica
c) Erythema ab igne
d) Pyoderma gangrenosum
e) Erythema multiforme
75. Which one of the following is incorrect regarding
ulcerative colitis?
a) Smoking is protective
b) Predominantly involves large bowel
c) Can present with erythema nodosum
d) A COBBLE –STONE appearance is seen on colonoscopy
e) Acute episodes are treated by i/v steroids and
azothiaprine
76. Which ONE of the
following is NOT an absorbable suture?
a) Catgut
b) polyglyconate
c) PDS (Polydioxanone)
d) Silk
e) Vicryl (Polyglactins.
77. Adequate minimum urine output in a 70kg man during
resuscitation is
a)
35 ml/hr
b) 20 ml/hr
c)
50 ml/hr
d)
45 ml /hr
e)
60 ml/hr
78. Which of the following is true for basal cell carcinoma?
a)
metastases to lymph node is rare
b)
common at non-sun exposed area
c)
UV light is not a cause
d)
morpheous type is easily treated
e)
treatment of choice is radiotherapy
79. A 28 year old
lady complains of painful defecation associated with fresh per-rectal bleed.
Possible diagnosis to consider:
a)
hiradenitis suppurativa
b)
dermoid cyst
c)
pilonidal sinus
d)
anal fissure
e)
pruritis ani
80. Haemorrhoids
a)
are commonly believed to be venous malformation
b)
require surgical excision if small and symptomatic
c)
commonly present with painful bleeding and perianal
swelling
d)
may undergo malignant metaplasia in those with chronic
prolapse
e)
pruritis ani
81. The Thyroid gland:
a) Is derived
from the third and fourth pharyngeal pouches
b) Isthmus
overlies the 5th and 6th tracheal rings normally
c) Embryologically,
descends along the thyroglossal tract
d) Is supplied
by the superior thyroid branch of the internal carotid artery
e) Is supplied
by the inferior thyroid branch of the external carotid artery
82. A nodule in the thyroid gland:
a) May be a
presentation of multinodular goitre
b) Is unlikely
to be a cyst if painful
c) Should not
be investigated with needle cytology
d) Usually
requires excision
e) Will require radio-isotope scanning to
help distinguish between a benign and a malignant nodule.
83. A multinodular goitre:
a) Is more
common in patients who are iodine deficient
b) Is not
preceded by a diffuse goitre in early adult life
c) Often
becomes neoplastic
d) May be
effectively treated with thyroid hormone
e) Always needs
surgical treatment
84. Autoimmune
thyroiditis (Hashimoto’s disease):
a) Characteristically occurs in young
females
b) Always presents with hyperthyroidism
c) Produces a nodular enlargement of the
thyroid gland
d) Is associated with regional lymph node
enlargement
e) Is associated with raised serum levels
of thyroid antibodies
85. Thyroid cancer:
a) Frequently
produces multinodular enlargement of the gland
b) May well be
diagnosed by thyroid scan
c) Causes a
hard nodule in the gland
d) Often
produces a bruit over the gland
e) Should be
suspected if there is vocal cord palsy
86. Papillary carcinoma of the thyroid:
a) May follow
radiation exposure in childhood
b) Is a
rapidly-growing tumour
c) Doesnot
metastasizes to lymph nodes
d) Is often a
localized tumour
e) Is rarely
cured by surgery
87. Follicular carcinoma of the thyroid:
a) Is more
common in males
b) Is more
common below the age of 30 years
c) Usually
metastasizes to lymph nodes
d) Is
associated with a relatively good prognosis in old age
e) Is best
treated by total thyroidectomy
88. Undifferentiated (anaplastic) carcinoma of the thyroid:
a) Is more
common in females
b) Is less
common above the age of 60 years
c) Is often
thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) dependent
d) Often
exhibits independent thyroid hormone production
e) Is usually
preceded by a long-standing goitre
89. The surgical treatment of differentiated thyroid cancer:
a) Should be by
total thyroidectomy in the potentially curable patient
b) Should
include a frozen section histological examination of the tumour
c) Should include block dissection of the
neighbouring lymph nodes, whether or not they appear to contain tumour
d) Is most
successful in anaplastic cancer
e) Should be
preceded by a therapeutic dose of I131
90. Recurrent thyroid cancer can effectively be treated by
all except:
a) High doses
of I131
b) High doses
of thyroid hormone
c) External irradiation
d) Chemotherapy
e) Further
surgery
91. Which of the
following is not true for Hashimoto thyroiditis?
a) It is an autoimmune disease caused by
CD4 cells with specificity to thyroid antigens
b) commonly
presents as hypothyroidism
c) Surgery is
required in almost all cases
d) Hashimoto
thyroiditis can progress to lymphoma of thyroid
e) Primary
treatment is thyroxine
92. In which of the
following conditions anti thyroid antibody may not be elevated?
a) Hashimoto
thyroiditis
b) Grave's
disease
c)
Multinodular goitre
d) Lymphoma of
thyroid
e) None of the
above
93. What is the most common composition of renal stones?
a) Uric acid
stones
b) struvite
c) calcium
oxalate
d) Magnesium
e) Xanthine
94. The most common cause of stone formation is?
a) metabolic
abnormalities
b) urological
abnormalities
c) infection
d) Immobilization
e) Vitamin
A deficiency
95. In the ED what is a value for defining hematuria?
a) Any
RBCs/hpf
b) 2
RBCs/hpf
c) 4
RBCs/hpf
d) 5
RBCs/hpf
e) 10RBCs/hpf
96. In the treatment of a 3 year old boy with a UTI, the strongest indication for admission?
a) Localized
myalgias
b) Maculopapular
rash
c) Marked fever
d) Mucoid
Diarrhea
e) Persistent
Vomiting
97. Which of the following statements regarding imaging
techniques for evaluation of
suspected kidney
stones is correct?
a) CT scanning
poses risk of nephrotoxic contrast
b) CT scanning
provides little data about the adjacent intrabdominal structures
c) Intravenous pyelogram is highly
sensitive but does not provide information on renal function
d) Plain
radiography is highly specific
e) Ultrasonography is the preferred
modality for pregnant pts but might not identify stones smaller than 5mm
98. A 13 year old boy is brought to the ER for sudden onset
of groin pain. On
examination his right testicle is swollen,
raised, and tender. Which of the following
statements
regarding this pts condition is correct?
a) CT of the
affected are is the imaging study of choice
b) Duplex
ultrasonography provides little useful anatomic information
c) Positive
creamasteric reflex confirms the diagnosis
d) Relief of
pain with elevation reliably differentiates this condition from
epididymitis
e) The bell
clapper deformity predisposes pts to this condition
99. What is the most common symptom of localized prostate
ca.?
a) Hematuria
b) Urinary sx’s
-- frequency,nocturia
c) Bony pain
d) No symptoms
e) Retention of
urine
100.Which one is an absolute contraindication of suprapubic
catheterization:
a) Lower
urinary tract infection
b) Cancer of
urinary bladder
c) Bladder
calculi
d) Interstitial
cystitis
e) Palpable
urinary bladder
101- About inguinal hernia,
which is FALSE?
a)
deep ring is a
defect in fascia transversalis
b)
cannot get above
it
c)
cough impulse may
be absent in large hernia
d)
mesh repair is
contraindicated unless recurrence
e)
repair can be
done under local anaesthesia
102. A 40 year old man presented to the A&E department
with ureteric colic. Which of the following investigation is not relevant?
a) abdominal
ultrasound
b) non-contrast
CT scan
c) intravenous
urogram
d) urine
dipstick
e) urine
culture
103. Which of the following drugs should not be used in
pregnancy?
a) amoxicillin
b) tetracycline
c) erythromycin
d) acyclovir
e) zidovudine
104. Endometrioma is associated with
a) cervical
cancer
b) vulva
cancer
c) clear
cell cancer of ovary
d) cancer
of fallopian tube
e) germ
cell tumour of ovary
105. The single largest factor determining long term
survival in breast cancer is:
a) tumour
size
b) tumour
grade
c) tumour
subtype
d) nodal
positivity
e) adjuvant
chemotherapy
106. What is not true about nephroblastoma?
a) also
known as Wilm’s tumour
b) occurs
in 10% of children
c) presents
as an abdominal mass
d) more
common in children before 3 years of age
e) composed
purely of epithelial elements
107. Procedure of choice to define anatomic details of
calyces, pelvis and ureter is:
a) intravenous
urogram
b) ultrasound
c) CT
scan
d) nuclear
renogram
e) retrograde
pyelography
108. Effectiveness of breast cancer screening has been shown
to be most useful in the following age group
a) <
35
b) 40
– 49
c) 50
– 64
d) >
70
e) All
age groups
109. Management of 3cm stone
in renal pelvis:
a)
PCNL
b)
ESWL
c)
conservative
management
d)
open pyelolitomy
e)
double J-stenting
110. The following is
associated with increased risk of breast cancer:
a)
fibroadenoma
b)
fibrocystic
disease
c)
atypical duct
hyperplasia
d)
ductal papilloma
e)
increase breast
size
